Husband is is replaced by "owner" in JW bible?

Question

Take Proverbs 31 for example... in the New World Translation that they (created and) use, the word wife (ba'al) is replaced by the word "owner". Now this is part of the definition from Strong's:

H1167
בּעל
ba‛al
bah'-al
From H1166; a master; hence a husband, or (figuratively) owner (often used with another noun in modifications of this latter sense: - + archer, + babbler, + bird, captain, chief man, + confederate, + have to do, + dreamer, those to whom it is due, + furious, those that are given to it, great, + hairy, he that hath it, have, + horseman, husband, lord, man, + married, master, person, + sworn, they of.


So my question is, why would the word "owner" be used exclusively, and not the word "husband" as is its implication... nor any other closer words like "lord", and how is this usage explained to JW's??

Thanks for your input, and keep it nice.

Well by Strong's, it says the word owner is usually used fguratively, and usually has a noun with it. So....???

Sorry for spelling LOL, got kids running rampage!

Thanks achtug_heiss, but in the rendering in Prov 31:11 (for example) there is no noun associated with the world 'ba'al'... in the example of Gen 37:19 the words for dreamer is 'ba'al chalom chalom' and in Gen 49:23 it is 'ba'al chets' and so on. When used in the example of Prov 31:11, the word 'ba'al' stands alone, which then means it is used not in the figurative sense of "owner" with out a noun (see above in Stron's definition), and should not be interpreted as such. But thanx.

Thanks achtug_heiss, but in the rendering in Prov 31:11 (for example) there is no noun associated with the world 'ba'al'... in the example of Gen 37:19 the words for dreamer is 'ba'al chalom chalom' and in Gen 49:23 it is 'ba'al chets' and so on. When used in the example of Prov 31:11, the word 'ba'al' stands alone, which then means it is used not in the figurative sense of "owner" with out a noun (see above in Strong's definition), and should not be interpreted as such. But thanx.

Answer 1

the brothers want to own us sisters. I don't know why any of my fellow Jehovah's Witness sister would marry a jw brother. he's gonna tell you what to do, how to wear your hair, what color of skirt to wear,etc. So their version of the bible is meant to maintain the control of women.

They say that the New World Translation is translated from the original bible, but is is translated from questionable versions of the bible

Answer 2

In bible times (when the bible was written), a Hebrew man or woman would certainly not have argued with the idea that a husband was the "owner" of his wife; the English term seems to have been carefully chosen (see below).
http://watchtower.org/e/bible/pr/chapter_031.htm?bk=pr;chp=31;vs=11;citation#bk11

Of course, at Proverbs 31:11,23,28 it is clear that the Hebrew term "בּעל" or "bah'-al" refers to the woman's husband or 'husbandly owner'. But the same Hebrew term is used quite differently at other verses. At other verses, it becomes indisputable that the term quite plainly describes ownership or mastery; each of these examples uses "בּעל" or "bah'-al".

Gen 37:19 And they said one to another, Behold, this dreamer [literally, "owner of dreams"] cometh.

Gen 49:23 The archers [literally, "owner of arrows"] have sorely grieved him, and shot at him

Exo 21:29 But if the ox were wont to push with his horn in time past, and it hath been testified to his owner [literally, "owner"], and he hath not kept him in, but that he hath killed a man or a woman; the ox shall be stoned, and his owner [literally, "owner"] also shall be put to death.

Exo 22:8 If the thief be not found, then the master [literally, "owner"] of the house shall be brought unto the judges

Deu 15:2 Every creditor [literally, "owner of debt"] that lendeth aught unto his neighbor shall release it; he shall not exact it of his neighbor, or of his brother

Jdg 19:23 And the man, the master [literally, "owner"] of the house, went out unto them

2Sa 1:6 Saul leaned upon his spear; and, lo, the chariots and horsemen [literally, "owners of horses"] followed hard after him.

2Ki 1:8 He was a hairy man [literally, "male owner of hair"]

Pro 1:17 Surely in vain the net is spread in the sight of any bird [literally, "owner of wing"].

Pro 16:22 Understanding is a wellspring of life unto him that hath [literally, "is owner of"] it

Pro 22:24 Make no friendship with an angry man [literally, "owner of anger"]


The introduction to the New World Translation actually comments upon the concept of consistently translating a particular Hebrew word with the same English word wherever possible.

[quote]
Uniformity of rendering has been maintained by assigning one meaning to each major word and by holding to that meaning as far as the context permits. At times this has imposed a restriction upon word choice, but it aids in cross-reference work and in comparing related texts.
[unquote]


So, while modern sensibilities may grate at the ancients' reference to a husband as the "owner" of his wife, that is certainly preferable to reading of the 'husbands of oxen' at passages such as Exodus 21:29.
http://watchtower.org/e/bible/ex/chapter_021.htm?bk=ex;chp=21;vs=29;citation#bk29

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/19990215/article_02.htm

Answer 3

Yes. It's simple. The translating committee for the NWT went to original texts. As Emerit said (thank you for that), "owner" is the correct translation for the hebrew word in the texts you site.

Elsewhere in the scriptures you do see the word husband. One thing you need to keep in mind is that when this was written husbands WERE considered owners of their wives, so it is entirely appropriate to use the word in that setting.
.

Answer 4

The NWT translation committee went for the most accurate rendering possible... Check the reference edition's footnotes.

Answer 5

JW's have NEVER changed any bible words....

If the world was 'changed' (and NOT by JW's) you are looking at it in the wrong way.

Even back when they bible 'chapters' were written the woman were 'owned' by there fathers first and then by there husbands. Woman were 'property' of there fathers and then there husbands.

Back then husbands were MASTERS of their houses. And LORDS of their manors.

Lord, master, king, owner, What ever word you might use it still meant back then that men were above woman and could do as they liked to them..

Answer 6

Are you farmiliar with how the witnesses are? I AM, and owner is a better word considering all the rights women and children have un their ranks. At least they are being honest and up front about the way they treat women.

Answer 7

don't believe what jw's say it is mans translation,not God's they give you.