This is a serious question and not intended to malign any religious belief.
2007-10-18 19:50:02 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Sorry for the mistake. It should read "HIS mother's..."
2007-10-18 19:59:09 · update #1
The virgin birth is likely based on a mistranslation of the Aramaic for 'young woman' to the greek for 'virgin'. So, no.
2007-10-18 19:54:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
Let me start by saying I have more respect for atheists and agnostics than most so-called firm believers. I will not foster laziness, and by that i mean I could, but will not list the exact locations of the scriptures in the Bible that make a cogent argument against the "immaculate conception."
Saying, "He's God and can do whatever He wants is the most idiotic, childish, lame, inadequate, pride and fear spawned response possible. The New Testament isn't very long. Read it all the way through word for word. Pay closest attention to what Jesus says of himself, not what others say of him. If someone wanted to get to know you would asking me be the most intelligent thing to do?
2007-10-18 20:05:39 · answer #2 · answered by STR8 WORDS 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
1 Corinthians 4:6,7
"Do not go beyond what is written." Then you will not take pride in one man over agaist another. For what makes you different from anyone else? What do you have that you did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as though you did not?
All scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may thoroughly equipped for every good work. -- 2 Timothy 3:16-17
2007-10-18 20:27:23 · answer #3 · answered by momsi 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually no. More than likely Mary's hymen had already been broken by her father or some other relative in a ceremony that was used to prove that a girl was a virgin on her wedding day. It is called digital defloration, and it is a documented old Jewish custom which is also mentioned in the Bible. http://www.quransearch.com/fathers_rape.htm
2007-10-18 20:16:02 · answer #4 · answered by Tea 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Would it technically make Jesus a sinner since he took a women's virginity out of wedlock? For that matter God conceived a child out of wedlock as well. If God is everywhere would that make him Josephs neighbor? If so then he coveted his neighbors wife and that is a violation of the 10 commandments and also adultery. Bad God!
2007-10-18 21:42:40 · answer #5 · answered by Dogma 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Does your Bible disclose this? Mine certainly does not. It appears, brain, that this was not an important issue that God wanted us to consider, right?
Jesus was a man when he walked the face of this earth. So HE should be the subject of "his mother" instead of "her mother" in your question.
Read your Bible. You will see there are many unnecessary details that the author, God, did not want to be there. After Armageddon there will be many new scrolls opened meaning much new information shared that we never knew---those who receive the gift of everlasting life that is, but I don't think Mary's hymen will be amongst the new information.
2007-10-18 20:01:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Your sttement with additional detail is correct.At that era there was not caecar or baby shift operation or surgery.So her hymen was broken from inside out..Mary had no husband and she was not touched by any man.
2007-10-18 20:28:20 · answer #7 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, if he existed (which is doubtful) his father would have broken his mum's hymen at least 9 months before Jesus was born.
2007-10-18 19:54:18 · answer #8 · answered by bestonnet_00 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
I don't think anyone could possibly know that. It would have to be based on individual beliefs, unless you were there to see it for yourself.
2007-10-18 19:52:58 · answer #9 · answered by JakerBumper 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
First of all Jesus was a MAN not a woman !
God sent His only begotten SON Into the world .....He not she.
2007-10-18 19:56:27 · answer #10 · answered by Isabella 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋