It says wine. If it had meant grapejuice it would have said grapejuice.
2007-10-18 05:19:59 · 21 answers · asked by Midge 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
To the people who disbelieved this--take a look at some of these answers --unbelievable
2007-10-18 06:06:42 · update #1
LOL! Do they really?
It was typical of the culture at the time to drink wine, or watered down wine. Is this the whole "no drinking" thing that some sects believe in? Some people...lol.
2007-10-18 05:23:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
Your question might be somewhat oversimplified. What are "Bible only people?" I fully believe that the Bible is the inerrant, inspired, complete word of God... and I believe that wine was served at the Last Supper. I also believe Jesus turned water into wine at the wedding feast at Cana. I believe Jesus drank wine, as was culturally normal for the time and region. There is evidence to suggest that the wine at that time did not have the same alcohol content that it does now. Even so, it was alcohol.
That being said, the Bible also teaches that you should not be drunk with much wine, and that a believer in Christ should do nothing to cause those around them to stumble or be confused in their faith. Those two thoughts are what drive me to a personal choice that drinking alcohol is not worth the risk of confusing a friend who struggles with drunkeness or the risk of being drunk myself.
I challenge you to not worry so much about what "Bible people" say and more about what the Bible says.
2007-10-18 12:37:53 · answer #2 · answered by melinda_:) 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I was told that the level of alcohol was different back then but at my old church they don't serve grapejuice at communion cause they think it was in the Bible they do it so that it doesn't stumble an alcoholic. My Grandpa was orthodox and they definitly used real wine it burned goin down. hmmm
2007-10-18 13:02:51 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was wine! I wish the fundies would stop putting their spin on this (and other scriptures!). They need to stop whining about the wine! I do wonder if they'll protest the wine we'll have in heaven!
If wine or alcohol causes you to stumble then it's a sin for you but wine or alcohol in general is not a sin. If it was then Jesus would have been sinning when He made 180 gallons of it at the wedding.
2007-10-18 16:29:33 · answer #4 · answered by Lover of Blue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not being an expert on the subject, but what I have been taught that 'wine' mentioned in the Bible was not the fermented type of wine we have today. If that is true, the conclusion is that the wine used for the Lord's Supper was a strong grape juice. However, the Bible also talks about not being drunk or intoxicated, so I have to believe that some folks let the everday wine sit around long enough for it to ferment to where it had a significant alcohol content.
2007-10-18 12:29:39 · answer #5 · answered by David 5 · 3⤊ 3⤋
Generalizations. I have never heard it translated as grape juice. They may use grape juice instead of wine in rituals but I think it's symbolic either way. The reason for using grape juice could possibly be children?
I'm interested where did you hear this and I find it hard to believe so many people have called it grape juice in your company that now you think "bible people" call it grape juice.
2007-10-18 12:32:45 · answer #6 · answered by deztructshun 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
check out the translation in Hebrew of the term "juice of the grape"....there are 15 different words / terms for this....
have you ever made jelly?? the same principle just don't add sugar...smash the grapes, boil it down, place in a sealed clean container... otherwise it will ferment /spoil and be the red raging alcohol content that was told to avoid....
And the Jews during that time period would have been witness to the many type of brewing operations and consumptions done by the Egyptians and the Romans...
doesn't sound kosher does it??
when you need wine/grape juice for your guests you mix this with x parts of water to have reconstituted grape juice....
the Europeans that did the early translations...the monks with their brewing operations in the monastery would naturally take the term "juice of the grape" to mean wine with bubbles and alcohol....
2007-10-18 12:39:16 · answer #7 · answered by coffee_pot12 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The Greek word used in the original language means "unfermented wine", thus, grape juice. The translators decided to use the word "wine", which is obviously not descriptive enough. That is why it is important to refer to the original languages in which the scriptures were written in order to fully understand what was being communicated.
I didn't think you really wanted to understand.
2007-10-18 12:42:00 · answer #8 · answered by the sower 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It was wine,that is what the Bible say,s and it don't lie,
Jesus said it is not what goes into a man that is a sin
it,s what he say,s that is sin,so we could drink wine and not sin,but we become drunk and cuss and lie then we sin.
2007-10-18 12:32:12 · answer #9 · answered by elaine 30705 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You are right. In the Book of Common Prayer (Anglican) Church, it says, "After supper He took the cup of wine..... etc."
2007-10-18 12:31:29 · answer #10 · answered by kidlet_animal_luv 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋