It seems that it is OK for jesus and god to do just what they want without question and get away with it.
It`s called `religion,` as two-faced as you will ever see it.
Religion cannot lose
2007-10-18 05:02:44
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answer #1
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answered by Montgomery B 4
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They were not married yet. They were only engaged. That is why Mary was still a virgin. Joseph was going break the engagement but and angel came and told him not to break the engagement. Matthew 1:20-25. Though out the Bible it states that Jesus will come through the line of David; Joseph was in that line and very serious with God.
2007-10-18 05:04:11
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answer #2
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answered by geessewereabove 7
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it truly is a solid question. sounds such as you're a thinking man or woman. Mary had to be a virgin, because of the fact God planted Jesus seed ( He switched over the seed into Mary's womb,in view that Jesus grew to become into an angel in heaven undergo in strategies Gods in basic terms begotten son ) Mary could have had relatives along with her husband Joseph and that would desire to have not guarantied the perfection of Jesus. we are all born in sin because of the fact of Adam, yet jesus grew to become into sinless. Mary had relatives along with her husband after jeus grew to become into born and had different little ones. Matthew 13:fifty 5, fifty six; Mark 6:3; Luke 8:19-21; John 2:12; 7:5; Acts a million:14; a million Corinthians 9:5. Mary grew to become into very courageous yet she had Gods backing
2016-10-13 01:54:57
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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A. Joseph and Mary were engaged, not married.
B. God has ultimate power - Joseph has no rights that outweigh God's. That's sort of what makes him God.
2007-10-18 05:00:47
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answer #4
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answered by NFLgirl 2
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God did not impregnate Mary. There was never any kind of sex involved to cause her to be with child. God, creator of all things and author of life can change things in accordance to his plans. He didn't need permission from her husband either because all of Israel had been waiting (and some still do) for that event to take place. It was prophecy to them. Later to be recognized as prophecy for filled.
2007-10-18 05:05:01
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answer #5
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answered by Tinman12 6
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Why does everyone think that in order for God to "get Mary pregnant" that anything sexual had to happen? That's just wrong. And she wasn't married to Joe when she first got pregnant - they were just engaged. She wasn't "violated" and if you really believed in God you would feel that since he created us all he can do as he well pleases to any and all his creation.
And PS - in those days, if you got pregnant before you were married, they didn't exactly look upon it favorably - it wasn't like the little hookers we have running around today.
2007-10-18 05:03:21
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answer #6
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answered by CHRISTINA 4
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No, God did not. But God did not break his commandment either, because there was no adultery. Jesus was created by parthenogenesis, that is, by fusing two of Mary's eggs. It was not a sexual reproduction. God does not have DNA. Jesus' human body did not have the Y chromosome. God made her look like a man.
2007-10-18 05:32:58
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answer #7
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answered by OKIM IM 7
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By the transitive property, Joseph got to do God. I bet there are a lot of evangelicals, Ted Haggard comes to mind, who wouldn't mind doing God.
2007-10-18 04:58:48
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answer #8
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answered by Take it from Toby 7
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She wasn't married to Joseph. If she was still a virgin, they weren't married because they didn't consumate their union. They were what we considered fiances.
2007-10-18 05:02:57
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answer #9
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answered by Love Yahoo!!! is a prince 3
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What a dumb question.
Gabriel appeared to Mary and told her she will concieve. So GOD HAD TO ASK JOSEPH"S PERMISSION?
Next!
2007-10-18 04:59:00
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answer #10
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answered by K in Him 6
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