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2007-10-17 01:35:16 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Food & Drink Non-Alcoholic Drinks

You are saying tea is horrible without it.. But someone must have decided to add it in the first place to work out it actaully tasted nicer. Alot of other countries don't tend to drink milk in tea.

2007-10-17 01:40:55 · update #1

11 answers

tastes good! ,,,, it is just about taste and what you like , I have several Brit friends that like lemon , no sugar
I like my tea spicy: chai tea in the winner with lots of milk
http://mysteriousbolivia.blogspot.com/search?q=chai

2007-10-17 04:47:50 · answer #1 · answered by RoseAlana 3 · 0 0

Unlike Americans and Continentals, the British know that tea MUST be made with boiling water. Not just hot, not just very hot, but boiling.

In the 18th/19th centuries, it wasn't possible to pop into Wilkos or Woolies for 50p cups. Crockery was expensive.

So put the two things together. Scalding tea poured into expensive crockery can mean disaster. The crockery cracks.

Someone had the bright idea of putting a dribble of milk in the bottom of the cup, and the idea caught on.

It's not so important nowadays, as even expensive crockery is better fired and heat resistant, but the Brits had acquired the taste (with Indian/Sri Lankan tea, of course - it must be lemon with China tea).

A few years ago, on a visit to the States, we invited two American friends of my wife to our hotel room, where I offered them tea. Without thinking, I added milk, and the lady said pointedly: "What made you believe we wanted cream?"

(Another cultural difference - a British couple would have drunk it and not said a word if a foreign person did something similar.)

2007-10-17 01:49:57 · answer #2 · answered by Harry W 1 · 0 0

Interesting - found this!

milk has long been added by almost all tea drinkers in Britain, Ireland, and most Commonwealth countries and by many in the U.S. The earliest western observation of milk as an ingredient for tea was made by the Dutch traveler Jean Nieuhoff at a banquet given by the Chinese emperor in 1655 for 'barbarian' members of the Dutch embassy. The wife of the poet de la Sabliere introduced France to the custom of adding milk to tea in 1680, and it was around 1700 that milk or cream was first used by tea drinkers in the American colonies.

2007-10-17 01:40:59 · answer #3 · answered by Sal*UK 7 · 0 0

When tea drinking first became fashionable in England the China in which it was served was very fragile and could not withstand the heat. The milk is simply to reduce the heat.

You may also be interested to know the origin of the name Brits - the only people to use it are the IRA and their American sympathisers. Has the attitude towards terrorism changed in the US now that you have experienced it yourself - wonder how this has affected donations to the IRA

2007-10-17 01:46:48 · answer #4 · answered by LillyB 7 · 0 0

In the 17th century the quality of the cups was so poor that heat would crack them that is why when you make tea the milk is added to the cup first stopping the heat from the water making a rapid change in tempurature to the cup to prevent damage.

2007-10-17 01:52:27 · answer #5 · answered by Ti-2000 3 · 0 0

I cannot drink tea with out milk.

2007-10-17 01:39:03 · answer #6 · answered by Ollie 7 · 0 2

I do not know it is vile with milk and I am from Britain

2007-10-17 03:59:06 · answer #7 · answered by K-Dizzle 5 · 0 1

why do people in the south put sugar in it? its just one of those crazy things

2007-10-17 01:43:37 · answer #8 · answered by stoners4reekin2havoc0 1 · 0 1

i don't know the answer but i think it was a gud idea, milky tea anyday!

2007-10-17 01:38:40 · answer #9 · answered by little_and_annoying 2 · 0 3

because it tastes gross without it?!

2007-10-17 01:38:21 · answer #10 · answered by jo* 6 · 1 2

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