English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-10-16 14:48:30 · 13 answers · asked by Perceptive 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

if it doesn't, then 'sola scriptura' is unbiblical.

2007-10-16 14:55:13 · update #1

nice to see your answer, Raven!

2007-10-16 17:25:13 · update #2

13 answers

its no big surprise the fundamentalists or so called "bible christians" have such a doctrine as "sola scritpura", with it you can do and teach to your own liking,very convenient!!!!

convenient but dangerous and as pointed out by others opposed to scripture and therefore to gods word and his church and teaching authority of the magisterium.

one thing that never ceases to amaze me is how "sola scriptura" is defended and yet the eucharist both clearly and hidden in the scriptures is so offensive to them and so "unbiblical".

oh well another well presented question may god bless you and may our seperated brothers and sisters in christ start to see the error of their ways and come home.

2007-10-18 17:28:05 · answer #1 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 1 0

Well said Raven + and tebone0315. I want to add and try make in a few words.


I read some using 2 Timothy 3:16 (New International Version) remember it was that letter translated by Greek (by human hands which man is not perfect) from original letter.

I am trying point error of the translator who translated to English which is Marten Luther. There is a problem in using this verse to prove sola Scripture is that the phrase “all Scripture” come from the Greek phrase pasa graphe. Pasa graphe actually means “every Scripture,” not “all Scripture.” This means that every passage of Scripture is useful. To translate ophelimos as “exclusive” would mean that every single scripture passage, independent of the rest of God’s revelation, is our exclusive source for teaching and instruction. But if this were true, Christians could not only use sola Scriptura, but could use sola Matthew or sola Mark, or even a single Scripture verse, and be assured of having the fullness of the gospel. Clearly, this is untrue. Plus, he did not write last letter of the bible or gospels and he could know of other gospels coming after his own letter.


Finally, Paul’s use of “every Scripture” is in reference to the Old Testament Scriptures of Timothy’s childhood, not the Bible in its present form (as there were no New Testament cannon at the time of Paul’s writing).


Paul encourages Timothy to hand on the apostolic Tradition (come for Jesus mouth) to future generation by writing “and what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach other also”(2Tim 2:2). Plus, there is nothing in the Scriptures about oral Tradition ending with the apostolic age. This is authority is passed to generation as scripture says whoever accepts Apostles accept Jesus and also accept Father who is in heaven, it does not says accept the only the bible.

2007-10-17 01:18:24 · answer #2 · answered by Original Christian 2 · 1 0

It is not only not in Scripture, it is contradicted by Scripture

(1 Corinthians 11:2, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 2 Thessalonians 3:6, 1 Timothy 3:15, 2 Peter 1:20-21, 2 Peter 3:16).

2007-10-19 18:22:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

First off, the teachings of the Bible should be, not the actual book. And secondly:

"I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you by the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel - which is really no gospel at all. Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ. But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel otehr than the one we preached to you, let him be eternally condemned! As we have already said, so now I say again: IF anybody is preaching to you a gospel other than what you accepted, let him be eternally condemned!" Galations 1:6-1:9

2007-10-16 21:55:40 · answer #4 · answered by Rain 2 · 0 0

They still haven't figured out that "scripture" refers to the OLD Testament. That 2 Timothy 3:16 refers to the OT NOT the New testament. When oh when (rubbing my forehead) will they learn that the New Testament was not written yet and that Jesus did not have a stenographer and a Kinkos following Him around and that King James was not alive at the time of Christ.

2007-10-17 00:31:09 · answer #5 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 2 0

The Holy Spirit should be our only source of authority in matters of faith.

But since we believe that the Bible is the inspired work of God, breathed into each of the dozens of human writer's individual consciousnesses by the Holy Spirit, we believe the Bible is a documentation of Godly authority. The good news is, the Holy Spirit is still active in the hearts of believers (and non-believers for that matter,) inspiring them to faith in Jesus Christ, and in Jesus Christ alone, unto salvation.

2007-10-16 21:58:47 · answer #6 · answered by he_returns_soon 3 · 0 0

The fact that Paul directed Timothy to God-breathed Scripture and not to some prophet, pope, or magisterial authority confirms the fact of Sola Scriptura for this Christian.

2007-10-16 21:57:31 · answer #7 · answered by srprimeaux 5 · 0 2

Actually, scripture reveals to us the pillar of truth...and it isn't a book.

1 Timothy 3:15 - "But in case I am delayed, I write so that you will know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth."

No fundies, you aren't dreaming....the Bible really does explicitly say that the CHURCH is the pillar and support of TRUTH.

The person in the office of Pope also has the keys (authority) of Heaven, given by Jesus himself, and the ability to bind and loose on earth. The authority was never given to a book which was nonexistent at the time.


Edit: Thanks tur b! It was nice to answer such an excellent question! God bless you.

2007-10-16 23:53:25 · answer #8 · answered by The Raven † 5 · 3 0

I'm not sure that it does. It does give an account of the beginning of human life all the way up to Judgement day. Thay pretty much covers everything. It is what we know to be God's inspired word.

2007-10-16 21:56:01 · answer #9 · answered by Elizabeth 3 · 0 0

Those who believe this take it from the end of the book of revelation that no one should add to this book.
There is no such verse since even the Jews and all brands of Christianity have their own traditional interpretations of the book.
The question should be who said revelations from God should end and what date?
Tell that to God... stop we have enough...
but I do not believe it did....

2007-10-16 21:55:11 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers