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ok first off...If what people say about "Adam and Eve" is true then wouldn't that mean we're all imbred? And if so isn't that another form of lust (which is considered a major sin or w/e)??

And if both of those are true wouldn't that be like Christianity going against itself and saying we're all sinning anyways!?

2007-10-16 10:53:46 · 17 answers · asked by cdr dsw = <3 [11/1/10] 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

In the Bible when early man began it was not considered a sin to in-breed. God spoke out against it later when it was possible to get birth defects, etc.

2007-10-16 10:59:08 · answer #1 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2 2

At the time Adam and Eve lived, there was no command forbidding the marriage of close relatives. They were not guilty of breaking God's command in this respect, because that command had not been issued during their life. You cannot break a command that has not yet been issued.

The reason inbreeding is a bad idea is that if a family has a gene that is damaged by illness, radiation, drugs, etc., and two members with that same gene have children, there is a high likelyhood that the children will have birth defects when they receive the damaged genes from both parents.

If on the otherhand, a person with a damaged gene marries outside his family, the children would probably get a good gene from at least one parent. Usually, the good gene will take a dominant role and the damaged gene would be recessive, resulting in a healthy child.

Inherited illnesses and deformaties would be more common when both parents carry that trait.

But, Adam and Eve would have not had that problem. They were created genetically perfect. There would have been no inherited illnesses (from pollution, desiese, drugs, etc.), so it would not have been a problem for close relatives to have children together.

Later, as population grew and the generations got farther away from the pure beginnings, God did forbid such relations!

2007-10-16 18:15:53 · answer #2 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 0 0

The bible is pretty clear and unclear at the same time about this. Adam and Eve had Cain. Then a few verses later, Cain has a wife. If his wife was the child of Adam and Eve, I believe it would have been mentioned. Since it was not, we must assume that she came from somewhere else. Where that might be we do not know because the bible does not mention it. Quite a few possibilities, but that is another question :)

2007-10-16 18:08:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It's not a sin to have sex with your spouse. That's not "lust." Lust is wanting to have sex with someone else's spouse.

As for Adam and Eve, God's first commandment to them, even before they ate of the Tree of Knowledge, was to "go forth and multiply and replenish the earth." We can presume that our DNA was in much better shape back then - it is only after many generations have passed that God reminds people on Sinai not to marry close relatives.

2007-10-16 18:02:18 · answer #4 · answered by Ahavah B 2 · 0 0

Adam and Eve are only allegorical and hold no literal truth. As a matter of fact, the story of Adam existed prior to Genesis being written. The story derives from an Egyptian creation myth and the character's name is Atum.

2007-10-16 18:02:14 · answer #5 · answered by Primary Format Of Display 4 · 0 0

adam and even had perfect dna- over time- the laws were given to not be with family members. also, there are theories that others were on the earth too. i kind of think that is the breakdown of jews and gentiles even though jews werent mentioned until later in the bible......just a theory for now. in 1 corinth. 2:11 i think it is- there is mention of eve committing adultry as well.....another theory to consider. i think it wasnt spelled out because maybe we were not supposed to know everything and we are study things out more?

2007-10-16 18:18:49 · answer #6 · answered by trooper753 5 · 0 0

yes up until the law against having sex with a relation was in effect it was okay to have sex with a relation read(leviticus 18 also talks about how homosexuality is wrong).

i think you meant incest when you said lust and even lust was not considered to be a sin up until the new testament and keep mind humans didn't make Christianity up it is real.

2007-10-16 18:00:38 · answer #7 · answered by michael_g 2 · 2 1

Christianity does say that we are all sinners.

He Bible says that Cain travelled to the city of Nod. it also says that God punished him saying he would be shunned by all the people of the world.

There were many other people in the world at the time of Adam and Eve.

2007-10-16 17:59:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Imbred? That's gotta hurt.

2007-10-16 17:57:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

You must understand semitic writing styles of 3000 years ago. Stories of Noah's ark, or of woman from a rib, are meant to convey truths, but not in a scientific manner (as we are use to today). That is where most people err.
Another problem is the way certain Fundies interpret the Bible literalistically. That is wrong too.
- - - - - - - -
This is what the Catholic Catechism says:

"The senses of Scripture"
CCC 115 - According to an ancient tradition, one can distinguish between two senses of Scripture: the literal and the spiritual, the latter being subdivided into the allegorical, moral, and anagogical senses. The profound concordance of the four senses guarantees all its richness to the living reading of Scripture in the Church.
CCC 116 - The literal sense is the meaning conveyed by the words of Scripture and discovered by exegesis, following the rules of sound interpretation: "All other senses of Sacred Scripture are based on the literal."
CCC 117 - The spiritual sense. Thanks to the unity of God's plan, not only the text of Scripture but also the realities and events about which it speaks can be signs.
1. The allegorical sense. We can acquire a more profound understanding of events by recognizing their significance in Christ; thus the crossing of the Red Sea is a sign or type of Christ's victory and also of Christian Baptism.
2. The moral sense. The events reported in Scripture ought to lead us to act justly. As St. Paul says, they were written "for our instruction."
3. The anagogical sense (Greek: anagoge, "leading"). We can view realities and events in terms of their eternal significance, leading us toward our true homeland: thus the Church on earth is a sign of the heavenly Jerusalem.

2007-10-16 17:56:16 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 6 3

Yes that is true, members of the immediate family had to mate with each other to reproduce the human race because they were the beginning of humanity..
But that's not true today...Today immediate brothers and sisters do not have to mate with each other to reproduce mankind...And its not lust when sex is for the purpose of reproduction..

2007-10-16 18:05:49 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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