Mark simply states that Jesus was tempted by Satan (1:13) but Matthew (4:1-11) and Luke (4:1-13) elaborate the story. It is claimed that during Jesus' alleged forty days' sojourn in the desert, following his baptism by John, Satan tempted him with promises of an earthly kingdom if Jesus would only worship him.
If Jesus is part of God, how could he possibly sin, and how could Satan possibly hope to tempt him? Satan's words would be absolutely meaningless. Surely, even the earthly Jesus was incapable of committing as sinful an act as the worshipping of Satan. Indeed, unlike a mere mortal, it was decreed that the Gospels' Jesus follow exactly the life outlined for his earthly existence by the very godhead of which he was an integral part.
In assuming a human body, the Jesus of Christian theology knew what God's purpose for the future of mankind was and what was expected of him in order to bring this about. Did Jesus, the perfect god-man, have free will to sin while on earth? Obviously not! Had he failed to carry out God's plan, the entire timetable would have been eternally disrupted. Lacking free will to do as he pleased, Jesus could not truly have been tempted.
Neither could Satan, as one of God's creations, promise Jesus, who was already divine and in control of the universe, a mere kingdom as a reward for worshipping him. As puffed up with pride as one might envision Satan to be, he is certainly not stupid. In the Gospel narrative Satan knew Jesus was not a mere human, given to flattery and subject to the temptations of the flesh. Jesus was not one who would accept worthless promises.
Even if we suppose that Satan did make Jesus the most extravagant of offers, as reported by the New Testament, it would not in the least have been a temptation to the divine Jesus of Christianity. In view of the claim by Christian theology that Jesus was offered an earthly kingdom by God: "Ask of Me, and I will give the nations for your inheritance, and the ends of the earth for your possession" (Psalms 2:8), can anyone believe that a member of the Trinity would have difficulty in choosing between the two opposing offers? Certainly Satan would not have wasted his time on such a futile endeavor. It is obvious that the account of Satan's attempt to tempt Jesus cannot be reconciled with the overall view of Jesus as held by Christians.
Of Jesus it is said: "For because he himself has suffered and has been tempted, he is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted" (Hebrews 2:18). But if Jesus was God as well as man at the time of his temptation by Satan, how is this verse, and indeed the entire temptation episode, to be reconciled with the belief expressed by the author of James? He states: "Let no one say when he is tempted: 'I am being tempted by God'; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone" (James 1:13). If according to James "God cannot be tempted by evil," then the Jesus who Christians claim is God cannot have been tempted by Satan. The entire Gospel episode of Satan's temptation of Jesus must therefore have not occurred.
2007-10-16 10:52:15
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answer #1
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answered by Primary Format Of Display 4
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Because He was in the human form when He walked the earth, which is part of the reason He came- to show us how we humans can and should live. We're all tempted by Satan, just as Jesus was in the Garden of Gethsemane, but God does not allow us to be tempted with more than we can handle- He always makes a way to escape it, as it says so in His Word. It is NOT a sin to be tempted, but giving into the temptation IS sin.
2007-10-16 10:30:21
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answer #2
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answered by blessed1 3
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First, I do agree with what you tried to bring out in the first place. How could a so-called devil temp an entity that is thought as being almighty. If Jesus had been real and did have such power, then the devil could not have temped him at all. But according to what believers accept, in their bible, it is written that the devil did tempt Jesus. And to accept this, one has to also accept that tempting of Jesus by the so-called devil then negates not only Jesus but the god that is supposed to be his father. How could the devil make a promise to Jesus of all that he can see to be his is he would accept the devil as his god. That entire incident negates both Jesus and the God that christians believe in. No, not a god using what is called a devil, but those who lead or head religions and churches use that to control their membership and collect their money, too.
2016-04-09 08:23:18
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The paradox ends when it is realized that satan does not exist, but was a human explanation for evil in the world in spite of the existence of a perfect and good Creator. Any event in the Bible in which there were not human witnesses to at least pass down recollection of an event is most likely a fictional story added for a moral truth or message. Also to understand the evolution of the characteristics of satan as enemy of God in scripture, one should review the influence of Zoroastrianism on Jewish concept of satan after the Babylonian exile.
2015-09-23 20:26:32
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answer #4
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answered by Gerald 1
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Jesus was in his human form and week after a 40 day fast Satan what better time for him to tempt him. Satan never gives up trying to overthrow God this was his best chance ever. Try is a better word here then tempt.
2007-10-16 10:15:01
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answer #5
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answered by s. grant 4
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Because Jesus became man.He made himself a little lower than the Angels.That is the state of the fallen man...(a little lower than the Angels) God created man a little lower than Himself,in fact second only to Himself,and a cut above the Angels, but when Adam committed high treason, that is when he bowed to the will of Satan; he reduced man to that status..So Jesus was not above temptation,he could be tempted just like you and I. Yet he never yielded to temptation, No, not once !!!
2007-10-16 10:21:50
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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"I and the Father are one." ( John 10:30)
Immediately the Spirit drove Jesus into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil. (Mark 1:12, Matthew 4:1)
People are really digging deep to answer this question in order to prove the infallicy of the Bible.
2007-10-16 10:19:38
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Remember that at the time of Jesus' tempting he had be 40 days and nights without food. Also, when He came to earth, he set aside His divine aspects to live as a human being, relying solely on faith in God the Father to survive here. He did this to show us all that it IS possible, through God, to overcome the world through faith. Remember, also, that He was "Tempted in EVERY WAY as a man, yet without sin." Note also that he was tempted AS A MAN, not the Divine Creator. He was, while He was here, as human as you or I, yet lived the sinless life we are incapable of. God the Father cannot be tempted, neither does He Himself tempt us; Jesus, in His Divine state cannot be tempted either, but when He set that part of Himself aside, He could, He was, and He overcame through faith.
2007-10-16 10:26:05
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answer #8
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answered by Steve 5
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Good Question!
"He [Christ] is the image of the invisible God,
the firstborn of all creation;" --Colosians 1:15
It is IMPOSSIBLE for God to break his own principles!
That is the only thing that he cannot do.
Jesus never claimed to be God, nor did God ever claim to be (or become) Jesus. The Bible plainly states that God is Jesus' Creator & Father. Jesus states that he worships his Father.
"...The Father is greater than I [Jesus Christ] am." --John
14:28
"...‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father...
to my God and your God.’” --John 20:17b
God worships no one...
Therefore, Jesus was able to be tempted because he is one of God's creations --actually the very FIRST one-- also endowed with freedom of choice. It was through him that all other things were created, but he recognizes his Father as the Creator. Satan was origionally one of the myriads of angels God created through his son, many of whom have decided to rebel against God & his principles. The names 'Satan' & 'Devil' actually mean 'resister' & 'slanderer'. They made themselves such. Satan was able to tempt Jesus because he, too, is endowed with complete freedom of choice.
...Christ chose to be faithful to his Creator, & thereby repurchase the right for faithful mankind to be able to live forever, in perfection.
2007-10-16 10:34:10
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I think it is easy to see that pretty much all organized religion is wrong in its own aspects. Don't get be wrong, the big three, as I like to call them, Buddha, Jesus, and Muhammad, all had very good intentions. Their teachings can tell us much about ourselves. We also need to realize that their teachings have been skewed over the years. I can find at least 65 different translations to the bible and about 20 of the Qur'an. Its all about interpretation. These "big three" had much to offer the world with their teachings. Unfortunately the story has been altered so many times in the last 2000 years it is hard to see the truth in everypage of any of the "big books". To answer your question, get what you can from their teachings but stay away from the parts that referance words like "fear" and "wrath". I believe that moses also did many good things. No-ones faith for any of these messiah's can harm, unless it draws blood. Remember, fear, terror, wrath, are terms Satan would use. The words that say fear life, fear death, and fear gods wrath, are not the words of God and it is plain to see. I urge you all to search the gospel of Thomas!! This was missing from the bible since the middle ages this gospel from jesus to thomas explains so much about god and life and love! The powers that be (organized religion) doesnt want you to know that god is in all of us and never worship idols like the cross, or the big three messiah's even! There is a god, there is a supreme being, its the universe, its all of us, its energy, its life, and it is love. Fear and terror and evil are just the absense of god! I'll leave you with a quote from Einstein.
"My religion consists of a humble admiration of the illimitable superior spirit who reveals himself in the slight details we are able to perceive with our frail and feeble mind. "
Albert Einstein
Here is a link to the gospel of Thomas! Please read this, and understanding will come! The gospel of thomas dates at least 50AD some think more like 20AD it is still unsure. Thomas kept notes of jesus, and shows the truth. There are still many differen translations from aramaic but it is the
earliest gospel written.
http://www.westarinstitute.org/Polebridge/Title/Complete/Thomas/thomas.html
Revelations wasn't written until 95AD, almost 100 years after jesus. This is a fake gospel, written in heracy !!
The Apocalypse of John
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/revelation.html
Estimated Range of Dating: 90-95 C.E
Whoever gave me a thumbs down obviously didn't read the gospel of Thomas or "Judas" as he was known to Christians!
I studied theolgy for 8 years in Oxford, earned my doctorate. I have studied every religion, every translation, and I have found peace from it. Organized Christianity banned Judas from the bible and you can easily see why. It threatens the power the churches hold on its sheep, I'm sorry Flock. Same difference! Wake up, to find god! He is not in any book!
READ THE GOSPEL OF THOMAS!!!!
2007-10-16 13:23:21
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answer #10
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answered by stonehouse421 2
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