from oppression?
2007-10-16 09:48:43 · 12 answers · asked by ez f 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Military
When Hitler invaded Austria (before WW II) it was supposed to free the German-speaking Austrians and integrate them back to the German Reich.
When Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia (before WW II) it was supposed to free the German-speaking towns of Czechoslovakia back to the German Reich.
When Hitler invaded Poland (World War II) it was supposedly to bring Danzig and East Prussia (Polish territories with predominant German population) back into the German Reich.
When Hitler invaded the Soviet Union, the German Propaganda Ministry dropped leaflets on many Russian towns telling the local population to support the German troops, as the Germans came to "free" the Russian people from Stalin's brutal and repressive rule.
So, yes. Hitler's invasions were mostly guised on freeing people. But of course, his real intention was to subjugate people and to conquer their lands for his "Greater Germany".
2007-10-16 14:10:33 · answer #1 · answered by Botsakis G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, when they, went into Poland to free it from the Poles, they (the nazi's) were so kind to lend 50% of it to Joe Stalin.
They (the nazi's) didn't liberate any Austrians (because they are not Germans, even with that bad accent.)
The Czechoslovakian section was all about Hitlers love for Polkas. "It was known as the "FREE POLKA NOW CAMPAIGN".
They didn't do much for the centuries old oppressed Jewish population of EUROPA either,
So, no looks like your question disguised as a rant wont work.
PS. However the Americans, the British and Associated Allies, including the Soviets managed to liberate hundreds of thousands, of Europeans, many of whom are still grateful today, including the Germans (well the ones from the west anyway).
2007-10-16 09:59:57 · answer #2 · answered by conranger1 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
The Nazis declared that they had had been attacked.after running a false flag operation. It was blatant BS.
"Following a German-staged "Polish attack" on August 31, 1939, on September 1, German forces invaded Poland from the north, south, and west. Spread thin defending their long borders, the Polish armies were soon forced to withdraw east. After the mid-September Polish defeat in the Battle of the Bzura, the Germans gained an undisputed advantage."
2007-10-16 09:59:26 · answer #3 · answered by sheik_sebir 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Wow. You're a jackass.
Chris is right. Hitler had some of his own men dress up like Polish soldiers and attack an outpost on the border to get them outraged. I can already imagine the gears in your head turning after hearing that one. You probably want to draw a connection to 9/11, don't you?
2007-10-16 09:51:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
It was for reuniting with Germantic people under the rule of foreign governments. The Germans in Czech and in Poland.
2007-10-16 09:51:31 · answer #5 · answered by Chris 5 · 6⤊ 0⤋
Nazi invasions were to get more Lebensraum (living space) for the German people.
2007-10-16 10:14:42 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Except for their intentions to deceive Russia, the Nazi's never pulled any punches. Their intentions were invasion and that's just what they did.
2007-10-16 10:08:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
No. It was under no guise at all. Conquest, pure and simple.
2007-10-16 09:50:56 · answer #8 · answered by ItsJustMe 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Nope. Hitler wanted more space for his people: territorial expansion was his thing.
2007-10-16 10:37:36 · answer #9 · answered by robert43041 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, at first it was to unite the Germman people, then it was to wipe out the Jews.
2007-10-16 09:58:05 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋