Explain 1 Corinthians 14:34, 35 for me...?

Question

Was this refering only to the Corinthian church at the time since the verse says 'your women' or is it meant for all women down through the ages? Here is the verse in question:
Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not
permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under
obedience as also saith the law.

And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at
home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.

Answer 1

If you read 1 Cor 14 in it context, Paul begins in Chapter 11 and goes through chapter 14 dealing with issues that the church was having with how their religious services were being conducted.

In chapter 11 he deals with people who were abusing the fellowship meal that often preceded such services, by hogging all the food and even getting drunk.

In chapter 12 he deals with infighting over church positions and ministries, each group claiming that their calling was higher then the others.

In chapter 14 he deals with issues where people were interrupting the services wanting to give "special revelations" that they had received, or give their messages in languages that people could not understand.

One of the issues was that there were several women who appeared to be interrupting the services wanting ask questions. Paul tells them wait, and ask their husbands their questions when they get home. That way they can get the answers without having to interrupt the service.(Nothing "sexist" or degrading about that).

So I Cor 14 was addressing a local issue that the women were interrupting the services and needed to be told to stop and ask their question properly. But it also reveals a principle for all times, which is if you have a question, rather than interrupt the service, ask the question of the proper people afterwards.

Answer 2

This command seems absolute. However, this does not mean that women were not to do any public speaking in the church. This restriction was not to be construed as demoting women, since the expressions "be in submission" and "their own husbands" are to be interpreted as simply consistent with God's order administration ( 11:7-8; Eph 5:21-33 )

"The law says" must refer to the law as set forth in such places as Ge 3:16, 1 Co 11:3, Eph 5:22, 1 Ti 1:12, Tit 2:5 . A woman's request for knowledge was not to be denied, since she was human being equal to the man. Her questions could be answered at home rather than by asking her husband in the public service and so possibly interrupting the sermon.

Answer 3

It is clear from 11:5 that women prayed and prophesied in public worship . also in chap. 12-14 that women are given spiritual gifts and encouraged to use them. In the Corinthian culture women were not allowed to confront men in public. it seems that some of the women believed their christian freedom allowed them to question men in public. this caused a division between some of the member in the church. as for remain silent in church. in that time women were not given a proper religious education so rather than interrupting the service she should ask the question later after service. Paul's words were to promote unity not to teach about a women's roll in church. Women are very important in many ways to the church no less then men.

Answer 4

the Teachings of the Bible never prohibited a woman from speaking in the Church, but it is wrong for anybody to interrupt the minister while he is bringing forth the teachings of God's Word. there were a lot of Carnal people in the Corinthians church. When people have questions about a part of scripture that's not related to the minister's teachings they should ask when the minister is done with his teachings or just simply wait and ask there husband when they get home

Answer 5

I could give you an answer, but your chosen screen name makes me doubt that you will accept it. Here it is, for what it's worth:

I am a Christian. While the Bible is a priceless tool for the Christian, the designation of "God's Word" is misleading on a number of accounts.

1. Word of God is a title given to Jesus, not to the Bible itself (cf Jn 1).
2. OT references to the word of God are more vague, referring to messages that God wants to get through to people (eg his word accomplishes its purposes). These could not have been referring to the Bible, or even the OT, since it was not collected together into a single book until about 200 BC.
3. Those who see the Bible as the words of God generally refer to "proof texts" such as 2 Timothy 3: 16-7. The problems with such proof texts are that a) almost no credible scholars think that Paul authored the book of 2 Timothy and b) that an internal claim for inerrancy proves nothing. Let me demonstrate: "Ever thing I say is completely true". Do you believe me? Why not--it says so right there in my writing. The logic with inerrantists is identical.

(BIG BREATH)

Ok, all that said, I believe that the Bible is a book written by people describing their encounters with the divine, not by God describing his encounters with people. There are human fingerprints all over it, often in illogical and comical ways. You have just encountered Paul's fingerprints in the quoted text and you don't like it.

Two choices:
1. See an obviously sexist passage as the very thoughts of God and spend the rest of your life wondering why God would ask such a ridiculous thing of you.
2. See an obviously sexist passage as the opinion of Paul, consider his humanity, and do with it what you will.

Paul was a great evangelist and without him you would never have heard of Jesus, but I wonder why the same crowd who constantly argue against the infallability of Catholic popes simultaneous argue for the infallability of the biblical authors.

Answer 6

a million Corinthians 14:33-35 33 For God isn't a God of illness yet of peace. As in each and all the congregations of the saints, 34 women human beings could stay silent interior the churches. they are not allowed to talk, yet could be in submission, because of the fact the regulation says. 35 in the event that they like to inquire approximately some thing, they might desire to ask their own husbands at residing house; for this is disgraceful for a woman to talk interior the church. There are 2 important perspectives. One is this became right into a cultural component like men wearing hats interior a development is right this moment. did you be attentive to that ladies human beings can placed on hats interior, basically no longer men? the different is a greater literal interpretation which invokes God's nature and the regulation which flows from it. This literal information is that God has set up the guy because of the fact the pinnacle of the marriage and the female is to be submissive to him. in accordance to this view, whilst a married lady asks a question in church, she has stepped out of that submissive function. it rather is likewise a rebuke against the husband, because of the fact he could be waiting to respond to his spouse's questions negating the will for her to ask. it must additionally be stated that he specially mentions married women human beings, no longer single women human beings.

Answer 7

With all the smartness and love in him, there are several passages in his pastoral letters where he voiced his own opinion.
Whatever quotes came from Christ or the Father, it is clearly marked in the scriptures. This one is not.
From his writings Paul seems a strong willed and opinionated person.
What he's describing here is the normal views of the time (some would - and have in the answers above - even agree it normal these days).
There might be points to speak for the writer, but - for me, anyone is free to disagree - this passage is shadowed from the darker side.

Answer 8

what they are simply saying is not that women has no impute in church (which God will not support )but I firmly believe is that they should not preach on the pulpit if they have intentions of such which the verse clearly put a stop to this by saying that they must draw this idea to their husband's at home so he will preach this very topic in the sermon the next day the church is congregating

Answer 9

Is this verse in brackets or in red, or looks different from the other verses on the page?? Scholars believe that this verse was added many, many years later after Paul originally wrote this letter to the Corinthian followers. It does not fit into the whole scheme of Paul's letter at all. Paul speaks of not getting married, living an ascetic lifestyle - he believed Jesus would return in his life time, so why gather wordly possessions and a family to take your focus away, when you should be focusing on your spiritual life? And then all of a sudden, boom...here is this random verse.
This is clearly NOT written by Paul...Paul who had Junia with him and other women who shared in spreading the gospel...

This verse is very reminiscent of 1, 2 Timothy -also supposedly written by Paul, even though most scholars would disagree...so they think that this verse was added to tie in the Timothy letters when the church was forming and needed to identify themselves within the Roman society in which they lived.

The verse is very specific -as all the letters in the New Testament are - it is speaking directly to that group -the Corinthians...
None of the letters were written for us way in the future..that doesn't mean we can't find meaning in them though...although what to take from this verse and the Timothy letters is questionable in my opinion.

Answer 10

You can interpret it any way you want, just like Christians do. In some fundie churches, it means they can't speak before the congregation or pray aloud, but they can sing in a group with men. For a lot of Christians, there is the recognition that Paul was speaking from the current attitude towards women at the time and does not apply to us any more, like all the churches who allow ordained ministers, bishops, etc., to be women.