simple
she wasnt its a myth
2007-10-15 15:13:05
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
4⤊
9⤋
Catholics adore and pray to a pagan goddess named Mary--she is NOT the Mary of the Bible. In fact, this goddess is known as "The Queen of Heaven" in the Jeremiah chapters 7 and 44. According to Catholic blasphemy (otherwise known as tradition), she was
born without sin,
helped Jesus pay for our sins; and,
intercedes for us because God just wants to punish us all the time!
Whoa! Serious blasphemy! And none of it can be supported by the word of God, the Bible.
In today's class we are going to deal with the virginity of Mary. The Catholic religion claims she remained a virgin FOREVER and never had other children. The Bible, on the other hand, says that she was a virgin when the Holy Ghost put Jesus in her womb. After Jesus was born, however, she and her husband Joseph had normal marital relations and other children. Let's take a look at what the BIBLE says:
That paragraph is an excerpt from a VERY eye-opening and accurate article, PLEASE follow this link to see the entire information. http://www.jesus-is-lord.com/virgin.htm
2007-10-15 23:07:33
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
God is holy in all his ways. He told his prophet Isaiah that a virgin would conceive a bear a son.
Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
Mary was that a virgin that was prophesied.
God created new life in her in the same way that he created Adam and Eve. But they were mature, while the plan of salvation called for God to be born as a baby and grow to be a man.
2007-10-15 22:25:03
·
answer #3
·
answered by Uncle Remus 54 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Mt 1;23-24
All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: "The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel"—which means, "God with us."
When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife
Mt. 1:25
But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
its Miracles same thing when Jesus rose from the dead he came out while the big stone was on ,Luke 24:5
i think God Able to do that and his ability is not limited with any laws of conception.
2007-10-15 22:24:45
·
answer #4
·
answered by Mosa A 7
·
1⤊
1⤋
The word 'virgin' is a mis-translation: she was just a young woman.
http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/mary.htm
"Justin set about infusing his Christianity with aspects of the rival cult. Despite the opposition of ‘established’ Christians, Justin insistently embellished the skimpy biblical Mary story with the idea that Mary had delivered a ‘Virgin Birth’. This belief, so he himself admitted, was based solely on ‘predictions set forth by the blessed prophets’, in other words, upon the notorious mistranslation of Isaiah 7.14 (in which ‘virgin’ was substituted for ‘young woman’; see: Lying for God – Virgin Birth Fraud) to be found in the Septuagint. In the context in which upstart Christianity was competing with a far more ancient faith, it is no surprise that the Christ followers eventually settled on a ‘Virgin Birth’. The ‘miraculous’ arrival provided a useful rebuttal to early critics of the Christians, who were suggesting that if the Jesus figure had ever existed, he had a rather dubious parentage."
Also:
http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/mary.htm
"The Virgin Birth Fraud
The most colossal blunder of the Septuagint translators, the mistranslation of the original Hebrew text of Isaiah, 7.14, allowed deceitful early Christians to concoct their infamous prophecy that somehow the ancient Jewish text presaged the miraculous birth of their own godman.
The Hebrew original says:
'Hinneh ha-almah harah ve-yeldeth ben ve-karath shem-o immanuel.'
Honestly translated, the verse reads:
'Behold, the young woman has conceived — and bears a son and calls his name Immanuel.'
The Greek-speaking translators of Hebrew scripture (in 3rd century B.C. Alexandria) slipped up and translated 'almah' (young woman) into the Greek 'parthenos' (virgin). The Hebrew word for virgin would have been 'betulah.'"
See also: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blessed_Virgin_Mary.
2007-10-15 22:24:12
·
answer #5
·
answered by zeno2712 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
ok I will ask you to read slowly because you have not gotten this yet
IF there is a God who created the whole universe why could he not miraculously have a girl virgin become pregnant? It was never about proof...it was about faith and the girl Mary responded with joy! an unmarried jewish girl who could have been killed for her indescression was happy! The man who sought to marry her was very kind in not refusing and disclosing her condition! You probably don't really want an answer you want to be angry at a God you don't want to BELIEVE exisist!
2007-10-15 22:21:40
·
answer #6
·
answered by just duky 5
·
1⤊
1⤋
Mary was a virgin when she was pregnant with Jesus
but she had more children with Joseph and now she is not
a virgin but Blessed because she is the mother of Jesus.
2007-10-15 22:19:58
·
answer #7
·
answered by elaine 30705 7
·
1⤊
1⤋
Mary was pure and she was the right woman so GOD let the Holy Spirit pass over her. GOD can do any and all things.
Bulldog
2007-10-17 03:57:53
·
answer #8
·
answered by BULLDOG 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
The Blessed Virgin was impregnated by the power of the Holy Spirit. It was a miracle, because God is in charge of the laws of conception.
2007-10-15 22:16:04
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
8⤊
3⤋
God, Creator of the universe, is all-powerful. He created our bodies, so He is not limited in anything else He wants to do. The Holy Spirit of God caused the pregnancy with no help from any human. Mary did later have other children the regular way.
2007-10-15 22:15:40
·
answer #10
·
answered by Faye 4
·
7⤊
3⤋
That's why it was called a miracle. Man can never ever comprehend what God can do. How can you explain Lazarus raising from the dead. Or better yet, how can you explain level 4 cancer patients completely recovered? It can only be God's work.
2007-10-15 22:20:06
·
answer #11
·
answered by hagio 2
·
3⤊
1⤋