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its a sin to be not circumized and a sin to marry outside the camp of isreal..moses married a egyptian woman.does god have favorites

2007-10-15 12:20:18 · 14 answers · asked by Waddetree 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

after that God couldnt rely on moses but put Aaron to be the spokesperson for Gods people

2007-10-17 15:03:02 · update #1

moses was Demoted because moses used his speech as a cop out...

2007-10-17 15:04:59 · update #2

14 answers

For starters, Moses was 40 years old before he found out he was Jewish. Moses was raised as an Egyptian. As he was raised Egyptian (and only his birth mother and sister knew he was a Jew), it would have been a sin for a Jewish woman to marry him, according to your philophy, because in the eyes of the Jewish people, Moses (in his early life) would have been seen an Egyptian rather than a Jew. It makes perfect sence, therefore, that he would marry a non-Jewish woman.

Jews circumcise at 8 days old. I have never seen anything stating specifically that Moses did not get circumuncised later, after finding out he was a Jew. While I have seen nothing stating specifically that he did, I have also seen nothing to say that he did not.

And by New Testament law, circumcision is no longer a religious requirement. And it is also not a sin to marry a gentile. If you are Jewish, perhaps these are still the laws of the day, but the vaste majority of the followers of the God of Abraham alive today are either Muslim (believing the Ismael was the son God promised Abraham, since he was born first) or Christian (believing that Isaac was the son God promised, and that Ismael was born of sin and disobedience).

I suppose God does choose "favorites" in the respect that the Jews are "the chosen people" and that certain leaders were hand-picked by God. As a whole, though, God loves all people, so I don't think he truly has a "favorite."

2007-10-15 12:30:16 · answer #1 · answered by Matthew Stewart 5 · 0 1

First, there is no evidence in scripture that Moses was NOT circumcised. Males are normally circumcised at eight days, and Moses was not put in the basket until he was three months old. So he most likely would have circumcised.

Rather when he was returning to Egypt, God was upset with him that his son was not circumcised, and she his wife ended up doing it for the son. Had Moses also not been circumcised, God would have said something at that time. He did not.

Also, Moses wife was Midianite, not an Egyptian. She was a descendant of another one of Abraham's sons from his second marriage born after Isaac.

2007-10-15 12:31:31 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1 0

I don't know about the circumcision laws, but Moses married an Arab, not an Egyptians who in those days Arabs were referred to as "Midianites".

Her name was Zipporah (Hebrew: צִפוֹרָה), and people thought she was a Cushite (which leads many to think she was Ethiopian but I believe there was some mis-translations either by the Jewish scribes of those days or the English translators later on).

It also believed that most foreigners either from Africa or Arabia were just referred to as "Cushites" because of their tendency to dress in jewels.

The Jewish scribes did a very poor job of recording women and foreigner's lineages and histories when Jewish descent is based on matrilineal and it's why Yashua didn't like the Jewish scribes.

Anything beyond Jethro (father in-law of Moses) and Zipporah being Midianites and apparently in Numbers 12 possibly a "Cushite", is unknown.

2013-12-29 07:41:36 · answer #3 · answered by Scott Williams 2 · 0 0

GE 17:10-11 This is my covenant with you and your descendants after you, the covenant you are to keep: Every male among you shall be circumcised. 11 You are to undergo circumcision, and it will be the sign of the covenant between me and you.

Circumcision was a covenant to show the "shedding of blood". This covenant was completed with Jesus and the shedding of his blood.

The bible doesnt state that Moses, a hebrew, was circumcised, however, this was done by a priest. However, the tabernacle was not "created" yet. Most likely done by his father. At this time, male children were being killed and his mother hid him. His mother nursed him for 3mo but could no longer hid him. She sent him down river, where pharoahs daughter found him and knew that he was one of the hebrew children. Mostly likely because he was circumcised...my guess.

JOS 5:5 All the people that came out had been circumcised, but all the people born in the desert during the journey from Egypt had not. (this is after moses)

EX 2:16 Now a priest of Midian had seven daughters, and they came to draw water and fill the troughs to water their father's flock.

EX 2:21 Moses agreed to stay with the man, who gave his daughter Zipporah to Moses in marriage.

EX 3:1 Now Moses was tending the flock of Jethro his father-in-law, the priest of Midian, and he led the flock to the far side of the desert and came to Horeb, the mountain of God.

2007-10-15 13:06:39 · answer #4 · answered by bandaidgirl 3 · 1 0

What makes you so sure Moses was not circumcised?
If not in Pharaohs palace he most certainly could have been latter.

In addition Moses married a Midyanite not an Egyptian, and the prohibition of marring out side of Israel was only started after the Torah was given.

That is why Jacob was allowed to marry two sisters while it was forbidden latter.

2007-10-15 12:26:45 · answer #5 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 3 1

Zipporah, Moses' wife, circumsized their son and touched Moses with the foreskin, and because of this God considered him circumsized.

Moses did not marry an Egyptian. He married a Cushite.
"1 Kings 11:2 mentions a prohibition of marrying from certain nations, but not Cush, and it was given after Moses married the Cushite."

2007-10-15 12:46:39 · answer #6 · answered by lady_phoenix39 6 · 2 1

Moses would have been circumsized at 8 days old, he was put into the basket at 3 months old.Zipporah was a Midianite, which are desendents of Abraham

2007-10-15 12:36:15 · answer #7 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 0 0

He married an Ethiopian woman, not egyptian, who may have come out of Egypt with the multitude, scripture doesn't say. Remember, there were more than just 'hebrews' that came out of Egypt.
As for circumcision, I'm sure Moses was circumcised. It would have been hypocritical for him to not be.

2007-10-15 12:29:31 · answer #8 · answered by witnessnbr1 4 · 1 0

God looked down on Moses bc Moses' SON wasn't circumsized. Not him. And his wife didn't circumsize him until last minute. The people didn't like his wife. Not God. She was faithful to Moses and God. God was angry at Moses bc he didn't cirsumsize his son. And he knew he was supposed to.

God said it was a sin in the OLD TESTAMENT days to be uncircumsized because He wanted the best. (As in he didn't want their we-we's to get infected!!)

HELLO!
News flash! Gods a caring God!
SO, he didn't want Moses' son to get hurt... in the future

2007-10-15 12:27:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

There is no empirical proof that Moses was no circumcised...only speculative ontology suggests Moses was actually an historical figure and not a fictional character...

2007-10-15 12:26:13 · answer #10 · answered by Socratic Pig 3 · 3 2

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