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Does it mean they no longer apply?
Or does it mean now you can just pick and choose the ones you like?

2007-10-13 11:16:22 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

12 answers

First of all, the laws in the Torah never applied to any non-Jew in the first place, so Jesus didn't "free them from it". There were never any punishments or penalties for non-jews who broke JEWISH law, it didn't apply to them.

There is no "picking and choosing" from something that doesn't belong to non-Jews and never did.

The laws still apply to Jews, Jesus didn't "fulfill them" any more than stopping at a stoplight means that you've fulfilled the stoplight law and now no longer need to keep it.

Jews do not follow Torah law in order to get into heaven or save our souls from hell - we do not even have such concepts, these are Christian church lies about why we follow the law. We follow the laws in order to create a fair and just society, and to manifest God's Essence here on earth through doing kindness and having compassion for others. So don't believe that church crap that teaches that we follow the law in order to obtain salvation - we don't. Never have.

Nor is it true that if we break one law, we have broken the whole of the law, essentially. This is yet another church lie. There are laws for men, laws for women, laws for farmers, laws for doctors, laws for lawyers, laws for judges, etc. etc. etc. etc. and NOBODY was ever supposed to keep them all. Would it make any sense for a teacher to have to abide by the laws for a judge? Not hardly. Same with the laws in Judaism. Ignore what the church teaches about it.

The only laws that ever applied to non-Jews are the 7 Noahide Laws
1. Do not murder
2. Do not steal
3. Do not commit idolatry
4. Do not curse God
5. Do not commit adultery
6. Do not tear the limb from a living animal to eat (this is actually a prohibition on cruelty to animals)
7. Do create courts of law to uphold these laws and create a just and fair society for all people

These are the only laws that ever applied to non-Jews, and they STILL DO.

Please see http://www.noahide.org


EDIT: TO HUFFY: Your answer shows a total lack of awareness of Jewish law. First of all, nobody just got taken out and stoned for being an adultress. She had to go to the High Priest and drink water in which the name YHVH had been written on and placed into the water. If she was guilty, her belly would swell and she would die. If she were not guilty, then she would live of course and go home, and conceive a child with her husband immediately.

Same with the other crap you wrote. An eye for an eye didn't mean if someone put your eye out, you went and took out his. It meant that you went to court to get MONETARY compensation, just like today. There were set monetary damages for losing an eye, or a finger, or a leg, or whatever. Please don't believe the crap you've been taught by the Church on these things, because they are lying to you.

Next, the TRUE Messiah does NOT break the Torah laws, in fact one of the main Jewish prophecies that he must fulfill is to bring the Jews BACK to full observance of Torah Law. Jesus didn't do that, he did the opposite.

And last but not least, the Jews didn't hate him or have any part in his death. There are no records anywhere, not in Rome, not in Jewish writings, that talk about a tradition of the Romans trotting out some prisoners before the Jews and giving them a choice as to who would live or who would die. Didn't happen. Didn't exist. The Jews did NOT have that kind of power under Roman rule at all.

So lets try a little actual education about things instead of just swallowing what the church tells you without even questioning it or bothering to investigate, eh?

2007-10-13 11:30:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

Man, the Moral Law, and the Lord. A man asked Jesus "How can I have Eternal Life?" To which Jesus said "Obey the commandments." Does this mean there is another way, besides belief in Jesus, to be granted eternal life? As you may recall, Jesus told that man "There is one thing you lack ..." And it seems inevitable that anyone attempting to establish a righteousness on their own by obedience to the 10 commands, will find out that there is always "one thing you lack..." Therefore let us be confident to say that no man will be declared righteous in the sight of God by obedience to the Law. This does not sum up all aspects of the Law, but it is a useful story about this topic: A clutz brags about his coordination. However, his confidence is based on ignorance, because all he does is sit around all day upon his hands. Thus, a wise man (seeing the problem) tells the clutz to get up and fetch some dishes in the kitchen ... and as predicted a crash indicates the inevitable ... the clutz dropped all the dishes! So much for his coordination. So the wise man gave a command that would reveal to the clutz a problem that he was either unaware of or had otherwise denied ... that indeed he was not coordinated. And so we read: Ro 5:20 And the Torah came into the picture so that the offence would proliferate; but where sin proliferated, grace proliferated even more. plumb Does not a plumb line indicate where a wall is crooked? Indeed it does. Does the plumb line MAKE the wall straight? It CANNOT. Yet once straight, the plumb line will match the wall that was made straight by Another! I am not talking about mere walls and plumb lines, am I? I speak of man and the Law ... and Another (the Lord) Who makes straight each of us that the Law shows as crooked. Lets agree that the Moral Law that condemns us is not the essential source by which to mend us. It shows our wickedness, by contrast, and it validates the fruit of the Spirit by comparison.

2016-05-22 06:42:17 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

If you read the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7), Jesus gives several examples of exactly what it means to fulfill the Law (Torah). In every case, it's about taking a commandment that applies to external behavior and internalizing it - making it about the attitudes of the heart. Jesus' point is that you can keep all the commandments and still be a rotten person. So what if you don't kill, steal or cheat? If you have anger in your heart, you still haven't "fulfilled" the intent of the Law. Jesus simply points out what is already understood by some but not by all - that Love is the fulfillment of the Law. The Torah is not about a list of Do's and Don'ts; it's about becoming who God wants us to be.

Peace to you.

2007-10-13 12:12:31 · answer #3 · answered by Orpheus Rising 5 · 1 1

That means that I will not be judged according to any law I may break. Because I have repented of my sins and confessed faith in Christ, I am saved by grace, not by keeping the law, as Jews before the time of Christ were saved.

Gentile believers, however, were never under Mosiac or Levitical law, ever. There are a couple of chapters in the new testament that deal with this very question, about Jewish believers who became followers of Jesus, what should they do, since they were Jewish, but now saved by faith in Christ?

It doesn't mean I have license to run out and sin. The new testament talks very frankly, and completely, about how to lead a holy life. It just assures me I am not saved by what I do, but by my faith in Jesus.

2007-10-13 11:32:49 · answer #4 · answered by Esther 7 · 2 2

Matt 5:17-19

17 "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 18 " For verily I say unto you, Till ° heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till ° all be fulfilled.19 "Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach [them], the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.


The Lord Jesus, by His own word, did not destroy the law of God; thus it is still operable. He did, however, alone of all men, obey it perfectly. He fulfilled all its demands and requirements, which no other man or woman could ever do. Consequently, He alone can redeem us from “the curse of the law” (Galatians 3:13).

2007-10-13 15:28:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

That the laws given to the Jews in the old testament no longer apply, but a lot of churches like to pick and choose anyways.

2007-10-13 11:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Gorgonof 3 · 3 3

If you believe in Jesus, your sins are covered by the blood of Jesus and you are not under the 10 commandments

If you do not believe in Jesus now you are still under the 10 commandments and you have to bring your unblemished goat to the alter every year to cover your sins.

Why Jesus died For Us

He is our sacrificial lamb who shed his blood to cover your sins: past, present and future. If not he died at the cross in vain. He full filled (Luke 24: 44) and nailed the 10 commandments to the cross (Colossi ans 2:14). Christ did not die in vain (Galatians 2: 21). Spirit is of faith and not of the works of the law (Galatians 3: 2). Christ is the end of the law (Romans 10: 4). The law was our tutor but no more (Galatians 3: 24 – 25). God will remember your sins no more (Hebrews 10:17). You are a sinner for life, there is nothing that you can do, not to sin (1 john 1: 7 - 10). You can not go out into the world and do what ever you wish, just because Jesus covered your sins (Romans 6: 1 - 3). Hebrews 8: 7 – 13 (he wrote the laws into their hearts, so that you would know right from wrong.

If you have faith in Jesus and are obedient to God, then you are not under the 10 commandments.

If you do not believe in Jesus, then you are under the 10 commandments, now you need to bring your unblemished goat to the alter every year and sacrifice it to cover your sins but with Jesus, he is our new covenant.

You are justified by faith and not of your works

http://www.mylordmysavior.com
http://www.mylordmysavior.com/10%20Commadements%20Full%20Filled.htm

2007-10-13 11:22:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

I think it means Jesus implemented the laws of Torah correctly by using wisdom that God gave him. Remember in movie Ten Commandment. Jesus came to a gathering of lots of Jewish people. He found a woman between the circle of men ready to stone her to death for her adultery. Jesus said only those can throw the stone at her who has never committed any son. Then all men drop their stones and walked away.

Action of Jesus did not disobey Torah. He meant that all people of a society first must become pious people themselves before they start implementing the law about adultry. Jesus fullfilled the requirements of implementing the law.

2007-10-13 11:39:40 · answer #8 · answered by majeed3245 7 · 0 3

Prophet BBQdog: Human blood sacrifice was NEVER acceptable to God. He allowed His people to continue sacrificing as they did in surrounding cultures, but NEVER human sacrifice.

Any of the little critters acceptable for sacrifice had to be slaughtered in the most humane method possible and then BBQd so the aroma would be acceptable to God. The meat itself was eaten by the priests and their families. No Jew would EVER let animal or human die of a prolonged, excrutiatingly painful death!
.

2007-10-13 11:26:43 · answer #9 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 7 1

It means as far as God is concerned His justice on us has been fulfilled !!! They are all in effect and have not been cancelled !!! The blood covenent has been taken care of by Jesus Christ !!! God keeps His promises for those who meet the requirements !!!

Rom 5:8] But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
[1John 1:8] If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
[1John 1:9] If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
[Rom 10:9] That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
[Rom 10:10] For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
[Mat 10:32] Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven

2007-10-13 13:46:16 · answer #10 · answered by rapturefuture 7 · 1 2

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