Bible Students and memorisers: It has come to my attention that the first written Bibles on Earth, in any language, included the phrase "Let us create man in our image, and after our likeness". Note the use of the words "us" and "our", rather than the use of the word God as a proper name, such as if God were an individual being. Do you believe there to be any truth to this claim?
Regardless of your answer to the previous question, is it possible the translation of The Bible was altered to suit the desired agenda of the Church that interpreted it, whether it be Catholic, Christian, Jewish, Mormon, or whatever?
Did the Bible's of your faith have their translation changed in the abovementioned phrase, to the use of the name of God, or words that imply God to be a solitary individual? Do you believe the new translation to be more accurate, or less accurate, than the use of the words "us" and "our"?
2007-10-13 07:09:47 · 13 answers · asked by Bawn Nyntyn Aytetu 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Do you believe God would refer to Godself in triplicate (as a triune being like Christy described), like someone who speaks in both the first and third person at the same time?
2007-10-13 07:17:40 · update #1
Ghost Of Alice: Are you suggesting that God was insincere and/or dishonest when choosing those words to describe Godself, just to increase the popularity of The Bible?
2007-10-13 07:24:48 · update #2
kc: I never said The Bible is one book. infact I know it to be many books, with many translations, in many languages, and with many MANY interpretations, and mention as such in my original question additional details paragraphs.
2007-10-13 07:27:26 · update #3
Is it possible that the use of the word us in that phrase is not referring to what Christy described, but also not polytheism, but rather something more significant and prominent, such as the widely held belief that God is a collective oneness, a mass of consciousness that embodies a fundamental dichotomy: We are one, but we are many. We are a synchronistic orchestra, yet we are unique individuals, on Earth as it is in Heaven.
2007-10-13 07:36:49 · update #4
The Bible was originally written in Hebrew and yes, the original verse is has a plural form.
However, any verb that describes G-d's actions (e.g. when He created man) is written in the singular.
That indicates that he was speaking to others who were not Him and not that there is a plurality to Him. Since man was not around yet, this is understood by Jewish commentators to be the angels.
2007-10-14 02:47:16 · answer #1 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The translators had to be accurate in every way with the passages of the texts that they copied. And that meant they had to keep the wordage. Most assumed that no one was there to understand the intent of the scriptures that are written but that is inaccurate. The translators always relied on a historical understanding of a passage in order to keep the meaning alive.
Below is a link that explains this much better than I can and in a different way.
God is a not a human being. But I understand the concept of the trinity this way.
God is a Father = I am the father to my children.
God is the Son - I am the son of my parents.
God is the Holy Spirit = I am the husband of my wife.
I hope this helps. Peace.
2007-10-13 07:27:53 · answer #2 · answered by Uncle Remus 54 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Pssssst! That's the way is is in the current King James Version...and by the way the The Bible was not "written as a book, dopy. It was compiled by scribes and scholars under the orders of Constintine at the Council of Nicea.
You just do not have a clue to Bible history do you.
You probably think you discovered something don't you
2007-10-13 07:37:18 · answer #3 · answered by Bob W 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
In the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, we use the King James Version of the bible which maintains the words "us" and "our."
This often ignored verse has great implications on the true nature of the Godhead, a pre-mortal existence, the creation process, etc.
Good thought provoking question.
2007-10-13 13:17:14 · answer #4 · answered by whapingmon 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
GE 1:26 Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground."
Us....refers to God the Father, God the Son(Jesus Christ, before he was ever born a human) and God the Holy Spirit.
All my bibles say it this way. The above translational version is NIV(New International Version)
NKJV also says..."Let us..."
2007-10-13 07:34:11 · answer #5 · answered by bandaidgirl 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was the truine God talking. The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit. Jesus was not created. He is GOD. Equal with the Father and the Holy Spirit.
2016-05-22 05:56:09 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe God said just what he meant,he created Adam in
the likeness of himself and his Son Jesus who was with the
Father from the beginning of the world,God does not lie.
2007-10-13 07:49:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The passage you are referring to existed in the oral history of the Jews long before it was put in writing, long before it was considered scripture, and long before it was decided that that particular manuscript should be included in what we now call the bible. Your idea that the bible is one book is a modern illusion.
2007-10-13 07:20:42 · answer #8 · answered by kc 4 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I have no problem with that. It's a reference to the Trinity.
and I don't think it'd be possible to pull off that kind of deception. As you said, there are multiple translations. No single group could control them ALL. I don't know of any translation that denies 'us' and 'our'.
2007-10-13 07:24:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
God and the Holy Spirt
2007-10-13 07:16:06 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋