2007-10-13 05:36:18 · 18 answers · asked by i_come_from_under_the_hill 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You seriously expect a rational answer here?
The bible is filled with prohibitions - both explicit and ambiguous. Most of those quoted here are ambiguous and do not read the same in all translations. And there are roughly 200 times more admonitions in the bible against straight sex (thats 20,000% more!!!!!!)
But in essence, does it matter what the bible says? We have minds, and decent people have long decided that human rights demand equal treatment for all people. Holding up the bible to justify homophobic notions either proves that god and religion are nothing but distilled evil, or that his follwers are very badly deluded from any sense of good.
2007-10-13 05:46:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 7⤋
The concept of homosexuality wasn't thought of at the time the Bible was composed. So, the Bible doesn't comment on the rightness or wrongness of "being" gay. A few Biblical texts weigh in against homosexual *acts* (that is, "doing gay") but we must remember that their authors, despite being divinely inspired, were operating on the assumption that such acts were a choice, and did not recognise the idea of a homosexual "nature".
2007-10-13 10:38:46 · answer #2 · answered by raxtonite 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You don't need the MANY Bible quotes/verses.
It's called SCIENCE!
It's called COMMON SENSE!
There a women on this earth for a reason. To challenge the fact that homosexuality is wrong is like challenging the existence of gravity.
If you're going to do that, then answer me this:
When in one's(a homosexual's) life did he/she become a homosexual?
Because they certainly were not born that way.
2007-10-13 08:08:57 · answer #3 · answered by 1/6,833,020,409 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Leviticus 18:22 "'Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable."
God blessing sex ONLY in the context of a marriage of a man and a woman:
Genesis 2:24-25 “Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.”
Hebrew 13:4 “Marriage is honorable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.”
Jude 1:7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after STRANGE FLESH, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."
Leviticus 20:13 "'If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."
Romans 1:26-27 "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."
1 Corinthians 6:9 "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders"
The Bible is very clear that homosexual acts are a sin. Gays who call themselves Christians often quote Matthew 8:5-13 as "proof" that Jesus didn't condemn homosexuality. HOWEVER, we are to love everyone. A sin does not make someone unloveable...if it did, we'd all hate each other.
In this passage, a centurian came to Jesus asking Jesus to heal his servant. The gay community says that the original greek word used here for servant is "pais", the same word used to refer to a same-sex partner.
"...the same Greek word – pais – is used in Matthew 2:16 to refer to the male children Herod executed when trying to end the life of baby Jesus. Since there is probably some innuendo somewhere in Classical Greek (different from NT Greek mind you) that could loosely translate pias as “same sex partner” it follows that Herod went on a crusade against his former gay lovers when he found out when Jesus was born. Or in Matthew 22:15 where the “children” are shouting “Hosanna!” it obviously means that Jesus’ boy-lovers are cheering him on. Things get a little confusing though in Luke 8:51 where he heals a “girl.” Maybe we can find a translation of the word “heals” that means “sexually touched” and affirm pedophilia? "
2007-10-13 05:54:50 · answer #4 · answered by lady_phoenix39 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can give you many verses, but if you don't want to believe one then you will have trouble believing more then one, But You can Read Romans 1:21-32 as a beginning.
2007-10-13 05:48:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 18:22
1 Kings 14:24
Leciticus 20:13
Romans 1:24, 26,27
Hope these help !
2007-10-13 05:42:49 · answer #6 · answered by Big Bear 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor. 6:9–10, NIV).
"You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination. . . . If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death, their blood is upon them" (Lev. 18:22, 20:13).
Jude 7 records that Sodom and Gomorrah "acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust." Ezekiel says that Sodom committed "abominable things" (Ezek. 16:50), which could refer to homosexual and heterosexual acts of sin. Lot even offered his two virgin daughters in place of his guests, but the men of Sodom rejected the offer, preferring homosexual sex over heterosexual sex (Gen. 19:8–9). Ezekiel does allude to a lack of hospitality in saying that Sodom "did not aid the poor and needy" (Ezek. 16:49). So homosexual acts and a lack of hospitality both contributed to the destruction of Sodom, with the former being the far greater sin, the "abominable thing" that set off God’s wrath.
2007-10-13 05:40:33 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 7⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 20:13 states:
“ If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."
Its there plain as day. Read your bible some time. I have read it and I am an atheist.
2007-10-13 05:41:59 · answer #8 · answered by Wandering_Man 3 · 7⤊ 0⤋
You asked for some scriptures, so here are some scriptures. I have shown it in 2 different bible versions:
Romans 1:26-27 (New Testament) King James Version
26For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
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Romans 1:26-27 (New International Reader's Version)
26 So God let them go. They were filled with shameful longings. Their women committed sexual acts that were not natural.
27 In the same way, the men turned away from their natural love for women. They burned with sexual longing for each other. Men did shameful things with other men. They suffered in their bodies for all the twisted things they did.
2007-10-13 05:39:42 · answer #9 · answered by Faye 4 · 8⤊ 1⤋
both in the OT and the NT
Lev. 18
Romans 1:25-32
and
1 Timothy 1:10
2007-10-13 05:42:33 · answer #10 · answered by Ms. Lady 7 · 5⤊ 0⤋