2007-10-12 20:16:50 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"In the name of Christ" means according to his instructions, according to his command, or by (according to) his authority.
Christ did indeed instruct, or authorize, John to baptism Him, therefore, John baptized Christ according to that authority!
It is like when a policeman says, "Stop in the name of he law!" What he is saying is the law gives him the authority to command you to stop!
Jesus gave John the instructions, or the authority, to baptize Him, therefore, John baptized in the name of Christ! He not only baptized Christ, but he baptized according to, and obeying, the authority (instructions) of Christ!
The baptism that John taught and practiced, however, is not the same baptism that was later commanded by Christ in the "Great Commission" (Mark 16:16). Now to be baptized in the name of Christ, we must obey those instructions!
The fact that the baptism practiced after the resurrection of Christ is not the same one that John taught and practiced can be seen in Acts 19:1-5. Some had been baptized according to John's baptism, but they were taught correctly, so then they were baptized in the name of Christ, "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38).
You cannot obey correctly if you have been taught wrong. These people did not understand that John's baptism had been replaced by the one Christ instructed. When they were taught correctly, they obeyed correctly!
2007-10-15 12:45:20 · answer #1 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
At the time when John was baptizing and when Jesus was baptized, there is no evidence that people were baptized 'in the name of..' anyone. Christ added this practice to the kind of baptism which existed beforehand.
Christian baptism, i.e. being baptized 'in the name' of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, means that God is the one baptizing you, not the person who conducts the baptism. So, water baptism is an outward sign that God is baptizing your inner life with his fire and with his Spirit.
2007-10-12 21:42:46 · answer #2 · answered by Steven Ring 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No John did not. He only baptized in the name of repentance and turning back to God in preperation for Jesus' ministry. And Jesus was baptized in the same form so as to give witness to others that repentance and returning to God is that important. The baptizing of people in Jesus name did not begin with John. For that matter Baptism is not in Jesus name, it is "In the name of the Father and theSon and the Holy Spirit." And that formula was used first by the apostles and disciples.
2007-10-12 21:18:37 · answer #3 · answered by afbdrummer 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.... No
Water Baptism was around as a Jewish custom prior to the Advent of Christ: Jesus went to be Baptized for the same reasons he was presented to the temple when he was born, when he was circumcised, observed the Jewish Passover each year, and on and on. He was born a Jew and followed Jewish laws and customs until such time he "Made all things New" in fulfilling the Old Testament Prophecies.
Christian baptism has its roots in Jewish practice during the pre-Christian era. Converts to Judaism were baptized to express their faith in Jehovah God. When John the Baptist came upon the scene to prepare the hearts of the Jews to receive their Messiah, he demanded repentance, confession of sin, and baptism in water. He declared, "I needed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me… shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire" (Matthew 3:11).
Christianity took a pre-existing Jewish practice and made it their own.
2007-10-12 20:19:17 · answer #4 · answered by Augustine 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
John baptized in the name of the Holy Spirit.
Christ was definately not baptized in his own name. When he was baptized the Holy Spirit came down upon in him in the form of a dove.
2007-10-12 20:20:04 · answer #5 · answered by Miss Marie 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No John did not baptise in the name of Christ as at that time Jesus had not yet been crucified and glorified by rising ffom the dead. John's baptism was a baptism of remission from sins (Mark 1:4). Jesus told John the Baptist that His baptism was to fulfill all righteousness:
Matt 3:15 But Jesus answered and said to him, “Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he allowed Him.
2007-10-12 21:56:05 · answer #6 · answered by seekfind 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he was not baptized in his own name. but he did prepare the way. he sent the apostles out to baptize " In the name of the Father, The son and the Holy Ghost
Matthew 28 : 19.
Read the whole book of Matthew( only 28 short chapters) starting on page 1187 of the king james version or it is the first book of the NT( new testament). and then pray about it in earnest. you shall recieve your answer.
Remember God said " ask and you shall receive"
2007-10-12 20:37:53 · answer #7 · answered by loppinaroundrabbitry 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
John baptized in the name of god . god was not the three in one Father, son holy spirit Christan's have today just holy spirit it wasn't until years after Jesus Resurrection that people where baptized in his name
2007-10-12 20:22:34 · answer #8 · answered by servicedogstar 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes.John said Jesus You should Be baptizing me.But Jesus humbled Himself and let John baptize Him.Jesus is love.To be technical He was Baptized in the Name of the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit.
2007-10-12 20:19:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
To my knowledge it doesn't say what name he used, but he did baptize with water and Jesus baptized with the Holy Spirit. "John answered, saying unto [them] all, I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire:" (Luke 3:16)
2007-10-12 20:30:12 · answer #10 · answered by w2 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋