Please support your answers with reliable references.
2007-10-11 13:42:40 · 3 answers · asked by Mutual Help 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Your two respondents have certainly started you on the answer to this.
A man not only must produce sperm that are vigorous swimmers, but many of them. It appears to take many of them each of which has an enzyme on the tip to erode the egg surface to then enter and fertilize it. So, if his sperm do not swim well, they can't swim far. If he produces sperm that are defective, i.e., the flagella do not work, or their are two flagella, or the flagella make the sperm swim in circles, obvious, this will produce non-viable sperm. Better than 50% of couples who cannot conceive are infertile as a couple because of his sterility, not hers.
You can probably google some of this to find more.
2007-10-11 15:52:02 · answer #1 · answered by April 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A man can produce sperm and still be functionally sterile - if his sperm count is either too low or too many of the sperm are dysfunctional, then fertilization will be so unlikely as to be effectively impossible.
2007-10-11 14:00:56 · answer #2 · answered by John R 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but he's shooting blanks.
2007-10-11 13:48:37 · answer #3 · answered by Irish 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋