Hello, everyone.
"I get to go with her to Paris for Fashoin."
Does this sound natural in American English? Someone asked me after he watched an American sitcom.
The meaning, he guesses, is that "I became to go with her~", but I think he actually heard " I gotta go with her to~." So, my quesiton is, can you say "I get to to with her to Paris for fashion?" and is it pretty natural? Thanks in advance!
2007-10-11 06:37:58 · 2 answers · asked by calpolyMIS 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Well, "get to go" means that it is a privilege, that one is lucky to be able to go with someone to Paris. It does sound natural in that sense. The "to Paris for fashion" is not that clear--is it a fashion show, to see some fashion houses?
2007-10-11 06:45:09 · answer #1 · answered by VeggieTart -- Let's Go Caps! 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Semantically, "I get to go with her~" connotes the speaker appreciated the privilege of going to Paris with ~. This conforms to everyday use of the English language (American or otherwise)
However, the infinitive verbal phrase"...to Paris for fashion." is very ambigous. Does the speaker meant to say he/she appreaciates the chance to go to Paris with another person to see a fashion show or for fun? It's sort of murky there.
2007-10-11 06:55:06 · answer #2 · answered by Ayo A 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋