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4 answers

Because the acceleration due to gravity is constant.

Try looking at it like this: Say you have three balls of modelling clay, all the same mass. Drop them and they all fall at the same rate. Now drop them so that two of them are nearly touching - the same thing happens. Now drop them such that two balls ARE touching - in fact pressed into each other as one. Now do you see my point - they still behave the same way as the single smaller ball.

2007-10-11 04:51:56 · answer #1 · answered by Michael B 6 · 0 0

i agree totally with this answer :
"The easiest way to explain it to a very high approximation is Newtonian mechanics. The main equation is F = ma
Now in Newtonian gravity the force between two objects of masses m,k is Gmk/r^2. Now lets say the k is our inertial object, e.g. earth, and we consider two objects of masses m1, m2 respectively
a1 = F1/m1 = Gk/r^2
a2 = F2/m2 = Gk/r^2
so the acceleration of both objects is identical (neglecting any other forces)."

as i said i agree totally with the answer but i looked at the last two equation you will find that accelerion depends on the distance between the two objects but that really doesn't matter on earth ,meaning, if you let a body to fall from the top of abuilding it will have the same acceleration as a body thrown from 2 meters away from the center of the earth because (r) in the equation are the radius of the earth and the distance of the body from the centre of the earth and since the radius of the earth is agreat number so any number added to it can be neglected so we will have the same (r) at the end.

i hope you understand what i mean.
good luck

2007-10-11 05:07:38 · answer #2 · answered by 1101-1001 2 · 0 0

The easiest way to explain it to a very high approximation is Newtonian mechanics. The main equation is F = ma
Now in Newtonian gravity the force between two objects of masses m,k is Gmk/r^2. Now lets say the k is our inertial object, e.g. earth, and we consider two objects of masses m1, m2 respectively
a1 = F1/m1 = Gk/r^2
a2 = F2/m2 = Gk/r^2
so the acceleration of both objects is identical (neglecting any other forces).

2007-10-11 04:50:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because the acceleration due to gravity is independent of mass.

2007-10-11 04:48:06 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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