When the function is evaluated for any particular value of x then the result is a quotient. Note it is the result that is described as a quotient. In the original expression 1 is the numerator and x+2 is the denominator. If the denominator is evaluated then it will be a sum.
Note, however, that if you expressed the RHS as:
1*(x+2)^-1
then this is a multiplication and the result would then be described as a product!
PS From Doug's definition (which I hadn't come across!) I assume then 1*(x+2)^-1 is not considered a multiplication so, yes, the original is a quotient.
2007-10-10 20:29:07
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is a quotient, but ALL quotients can be written as a product by bringing the denominator to the top by raising it to the power of -1
2007-10-11 00:36:54
·
answer #2
·
answered by Mark W 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
No, it's -not- a product. It's a quotient. The 'multiplicative inverse' of a number is defined to be the number which, when multiplide by the original number, will be equal to 1.
Doug
2007-10-10 20:31:56
·
answer #3
·
answered by doug_donaghue 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
actualy by vyzantine mathimatics every letter of the greek alphabet is a number so i made asystem to make also latinic alphabet like the vyzantine one, the only thing you need is 27 leters to divite them to three nines. so you taking the first nine line of the alphabet from the letter A to the letter I and you count every letter 1,2 3 till nine, then you take the second line of the alpha bet letters from J to R and you count 10,20,30 till 90 the third line of the lattinic alphabet actually has 8 letters but if you talk germans you have also β so you count nine letters from β ,S,T till Z and you have the numbers 100, 200, 300, till 900 you use the same way for the thousands millions but you just put a tone not in the right upper corner like you do with the units dekades hundrends butin the left under corner and you keep on doing. zero does not exists because symbolize nothing so your question by this way is transformed exactly {f(x)=1/X+2}={6(700)=1/700+2}={F(X)=A/X+B}
I GOT YOU CRAZY E? THOU THE GREEK SYSTEM LIKE THAT WAS EXISTED TIL 800 AFTER CHRIST, CHEARS
2007-10-11 01:23:46
·
answer #4
·
answered by Dimitrioς Papaevangelou 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
1/ x+2 = quotient rule.now lets try product rule, 1/ x+2 is (x+2)^-1
but as example of product rule is (x+5)(x+6)^3.
so 1/x+2 is not a product rule.
2007-10-10 21:11:12
·
answer #5
·
answered by dark 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is the quotient of a sum.
2007-10-10 20:09:16
·
answer #6
·
answered by Roy E 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
I am not positive but I think it is a quotient.
2007-10-10 20:09:51
·
answer #7
·
answered by john 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
"f" could be the quotient of two other functions .....
2007-10-10 20:30:00
·
answer #8
·
answered by loopyhaze 3
·
0⤊
0⤋