2007-10-10 15:10:59 · 6 answers · asked by baykid415 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Since Germany wanted war in 1914, fault isn't really the right term. The mobilization of Russia after Austria Hungary declared war on Serbia (with a great deal of encouragement from Germany) was their pretext.
2007-10-10 15:28:21 · answer #1 · answered by Captain Hammer 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You might want to change this, give a year or a qualifier.
At the outbreak, they viewed it as an opportunity. A quick war which they'd win. By the twenties, many such as author Erich Remarque of All Quiet on the Western Front, viewed it as the fault of princes and generals who wanted fame and glory. By the 30s you have the anti-Semite crowd claiming that the war and its loss were solely the fault of evil Jews. by the forties, you have different opinions in the east and west.
Today's Germany? Or that of the time?
2007-10-10 23:16:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
When a group of Serbians killed the Austrian Leader, it set off a string of countries including Germany, England & France to fight each other, with aliance with Austria or Serbia.
If the Allies didnt blame and sting Germany so much after WWI , WW2 would never have been looked at or started.
2007-10-11 04:38:02 · answer #3 · answered by worldwidefords 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If we look at it from the standpoint of Germany they would eve blamed as Austria blamed for the beginning on a Serbian anarchist who killed the Austrian Archduke Ferdinand and his wife at Sarajevo.
2007-10-10 23:13:07 · answer #4 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably The thought The Jews Caused It. Even though it was the fault of the greedy Hitler and it was not the jews Fault. Wait. Am I In WW 2? Whoops.
2007-10-10 22:18:55 · answer #5 · answered by ♥ Hey There Delilah ♥ 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
an anarchist from austria fired the shot that basically touched off ww1. ww2 was the greed and fault of hitler.
2007-10-10 22:14:56 · answer #6 · answered by forktail_devil 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋