We constantly hear that "the gap between rich and poor is widening", but does that really mean ANYONE is worse off?
For example, Say there are two people. One makes $100,000 a year. The other makes $10,000 per year. The difference in their incomes is $90,000.
Over the next year they both experience a 10% increase in income. Now the first person is making $110,000 a year and the second is making $11,000 a year. Both are better off. Both have more money to spend.
However, the difference in their incomes has increased from $90,000 to $99,000. Even though no one is worse off than before and indeed both are better off, the gap between rich and poor has just widened by $9,000!
Doesn't this example show the income gap to be a meaningless argument? In fact, if incomes continue to rise, doesn't that mean that the income gap HAS to increase?
2007-10-10
14:05:22
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7 answers
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asked by
David M
6
in
Politics & Government
➔ Other - Politics & Government
Yes I realize that $100,000 isn't mega wealthy. Honestly I was an econ major so I'm more comfortable using letters in formulae than numbers anyway. The actual figures are unimportant. What IS important is the fact that as incomes rise, the gap in actual dollar value widens.
2007-10-10
14:24:19 ·
update #1
Would someone please dispute my premiss with just a tad of economic FACT rather than left-wing retoric about the evil's of people making money, expanding their businesses, and creating jobs.
Why is making money a bad thing? If no one is making money there's no reason to hire workers! THAT makes it difficult to make a living and get by.
2007-10-12
22:05:42 ·
update #2