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Determine wehther the following conjecture is true or false.Explain your reasoning.if the conjecture is false, provide a counterexample. (remember that a conjecture is a guess based on incomplete evedence.)

for all integers a, b, and c, if a = b, then a/c = b/c

2007-10-10 06:43:25 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

This is true. There's a name for the property but I don't remember it. Basically, if two numbers are equal (like a and b) and you perform identical processes on them (like dividing them by c), you will achieve results which are always equal.

For example, say a and b both equal 4 (thus a=b). Now say c equals 2. 4/2=4/2 or 2=2. This is true for every number that c could possibly be (4/13=4/13, 4/112=4/122, etc.).

2007-10-10 06:51:40 · answer #1 · answered by Expat Mike 7 · 0 0

The statement is true. As an example, let's plug in numbers.

If A=2 and C=3, then:

A=B, thus B=2
A/C = 2/3
B/C = 2/3

Thus the statement proves to be true.

2007-10-10 13:51:01 · answer #2 · answered by Marvinator 7 · 0 0

yes is true, we just did thid in my math class yesterday! ok so
A= 2 therefore B=2 so A=B C=5 A/C is 2/5=10 B/C is 2/5=10 hope i helped

2007-10-10 13:51:11 · answer #3 · answered by Morgan 3 · 0 0

It is true as long as c is not equal to 0 in which case the ratio becomes undefined.
if a = b , you are dividing two equal numbers by the same number c; hence, the ratios must be equal.

2007-10-10 13:53:35 · answer #4 · answered by cidyah 7 · 0 0

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