THE OTHER ANSWERS HERE ARE INCORRECT!
You are absolutely correct: tan^2(x) = (sinx/cosx)^2, because you are simply squaring both sides of that identity.
Anyway, on with the question:
tan^2(x) + sec(x) = 1
whenever you seen weird things, its probably best to write it in terms of sin and cos and see what happens.
(sinx/cosx)^2 + (1/cosx) = 1
lets multiply both sides by cos^2(x)
sin^2(x) + cosx = cos^2(x)
okay so at the moment we have only 2 different terms: sin and cos. lets try to get rid of that sin. recall that:
sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1.
so:
sin^2(x) = 1- cos^2(x).
let's substitute this into our equation.
1- cos^2(x) + cosx = cos^2(x)
2cos^2(x) - cosx - 1 = 0
this is a quadratic equation, so we can solve for cosx
you can either use the quadratic formula or factorise, but you should come up with:
cosx = -(1/2) and cosx = 1
So from here you can use the quadrants to solve for x.
So just for the interval between 0 and 360 degrees:
x = 0, 120, 240, 360
Hope this helps!
2007-10-10 02:05:32
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Put 1 - cos^2 in place of sin^2, then let m = cos x. This will leave you with the quadratic equation m^2 + 4m - 1 = 0. Solve for m then put cos(x) back in place and solve for x.
2016-04-08 00:46:23
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answer #2
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answered by Barbara 4
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Hello
Also note that tan^2(x) = sec^2(x) -1
So substitute this in to get
sec^2(x) -1 + sec(x) = 1
Simplified to be
sec^2(x) + sec(x) - 2 = 0
This is simply
(u+2)(u-1) = 0 (let u = secx)
Thus we have
(sec(x)+2)(sec(x)-1) = 0
So we have
(sec(x)+2) = 0
or
(sec(x)-1) = 0
sec(x) = 2 when x = pi/3 and 5pi/3
sec(x) = 1 when x = 0 and 2pi
(this is also the same thing as finding where cos(x) = 1 and cos(x)=.5
Hope this helps
2007-10-10 02:04:46
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answer #3
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answered by Jeff U 4
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One of the trig identities is
1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x
so...
tan^2 x = (sec^2 x) - 1
So, use that substitution in the equation...
tan^2 x + sec x = 1
(sec^2 x - 1) - sec x = 1
sec^2 x - sec x - 2 = 0
Let y = sec x
now you have
y^2 - y - 2 = 0
(y - 2)(y + 1) = 0
so,
y = 2 and -1
which means
sec x = 2 and sec x = -1
so...
x = 60 and x = 180
2007-10-10 02:03:54
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answer #4
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answered by Mathematica 7
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yes, tan^2 x = (sinx / cosx) ^ 2
Let sinx = a, cosx = b
we have a^2 / b^2 + 1/b = 1
or a^2 + b = b^2
note that a^2 = 1-b^2
so 1 - b^2 + b = b^2
or 2b^2 -b-1 = 0
(2b+1)(b-1) = 0
so we have b = 1 and x = 0
or b = -1/2 and x = 2pi/3 or -2pi/3
2007-10-10 02:04:22
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answer #5
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answered by Nguyen Quang Huy 2
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Yes, tan^2 x = (sin x / cos x)^2 or sin^2/cos^2
and
sec x = 1/cos x
So...
tax^2 + sec =1
(sin^2/cos^2) + (1/cos) = 1
Getting common denominators leaves:
(sin^2/cos^2) + (cos/cos^2) = 1
Adding the fractions leaves:
(sin^2 + cos ) / cos^2 = 1
Therefore:
sin^2 + cos = cos^2
Since sin^2 + cos^2 =1, sin^2 = 1 - cos^2
Back to our equation: sin^2 + cos = cos^2, substituting for sin^2 leaves:
1 - cos^2 + cos = cos^2.
Now, lets let m=cos x
1 - m^2 + m = m^2 or...
2m^2 - m - 1 = 0
so...
m = cos x = 1 or -0.5
if cos x = 1, x = 0
if cos x = -0.5, x = 120 degrees or (2 pi / 3) radians
x = 0 or 2pi/3
2007-10-10 02:17:29
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answer #6
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answered by mrsp2e 1
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you are rught:
tan^2(x) = (sin x/cos x)^2 = sin^2x / cos^2x
& sec x = 1/cos x,
so it comes:
sin^2x / cos^2x + 1/cos x = 1 <=>
sin^2x / cos^2x + cos x/cos^2 x = 1 <=>
sin^2x + cos x = cos^2 x <=>
1-cos^2 x + cos x = cos^2 x
in the canonic form:
-cos^2 x + cos x + 1 = 0
consider cos x as y and solve:
-y^2 + y + 1= 0
and once you get the values for y, solve:
y = cos x
won't help you more than this
2007-10-10 02:08:04
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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sin^2x/cos^2x+1/cos x-1=0
sin^2x +cos x-cos^2x=0 as sin^2 = 1-cos ^2
-2 cos^2x+cos x +1 =0
call cos x = z
2z^2-z-1=0 z=( 1+- 3)/4
so cos x= 1 and cos x = -1/2
x= 2kpi k any integer
x= 2pi/3+2kpi
x= 4pi/3 +2k pi
2007-10-10 02:07:33
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answer #8
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answered by santmann2002 7
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tanx=sinx/cosx
tan2x=sin2x/cos2x
sin2x=2cosxsinx
cos2x=1-2*(sinX)^2
------------------------------------------------------------------
tan^2x+secx=sin^2x/cos^2x+1/cos^2x=(1+sin^2x)/cos^2x=1
(because 1+sin^2x=cos^2x
2007-10-10 02:09:54
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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