2007-10-09 09:46:01 · 9 answers · asked by Everlasting Life 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
At the wedding in Cana, however, Jesus had just embarked on his ministry as the Messiah, and his “hour” had not yet come. His primary objective was to do his Father’s will in the way and at the time that his Father directed, and no one could interfere with his determined course. In conveying this to his mother, Jesus was firm but in no way disrespectful or unkind.
2007-10-11 04:09:06 · answer #1 · answered by conundrum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Gospel of John was written originally in the Greek language. The word used and translated "woman" is the word "guneÌ", which was considered a term of respect in the Greek language. At the time the King James Bible was translated (400 years ago while Shakespeare was still alive), the term "woman" was also considered a term of respect. That is why the translators choose it then.
Today, 400 years later, it would not be considered a respectful term (languages change). Newer translation use the word "dear", or the phrase "dear woman" to reflect that Jesus' words were respectful.
2007-10-09 16:58:01 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When he called her "Woman."?
This is a good example of not understanding that the bible was written in another language besides English, and languages never match up word for word, or concept for concept when you start translating.
Suffice it to say that "woman" was a term of respect in Jesus's time. It's not sassy and condescending like it is today.
2007-10-09 16:49:35 · answer #3 · answered by Acorn 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That depends on whether or not you believe the New Testament is totally sound and unedited/unchanged.
Hard to pin anything on anyone if the source has been corrupted from day one.
.
2007-10-09 16:49:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, other wise he would be breaking the commandment, thou shall honour your father and mother. of course there is a mystery here in calling her woman and not mother.
2007-10-09 16:56:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, the dialog as recorded is the cleaned up, fit-for-network-broadcast version.
The original dialog would have made Quentin Tarantino blush.
2007-10-09 16:49:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't believe so. That was the ways of the world then.
2007-10-09 16:50:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
...he called her Woman?
oh! no!
...reasons
1. there is no word for MOTHER in hebrew
2. It is not from jesus!
2007-10-09 17:15:27 · answer #8 · answered by ame XY 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Are you thinking that he was?
2007-10-09 16:51:03 · answer #9 · answered by William D 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋