It makes no sense that Jesus could be born sinless from Mary, unless the Mother of God HERSELF was sinless. The 4th blessed Marian Dogma is quite clear about that!
Now protestants, don't say "Well, how could Mary be born sinless if St. Anne wasn't born sinless" that would just be ridiculous!!!
2007-10-09 05:01:40 · 26 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I firmly believe and hereby confess that God certainly could and did preserve the sinlessness of the Blessed Virgin, the Theotokos.
As The Archangel Gabriel said to the Blessed Virgin at the Annunciation...."With God, nothing is impossible."
2007-10-09 05:08:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
He is God. He never had sin. He didn't need some woman's sinless body to come into the world sinless.
yes, mary was a good and Godly woman and that's why God chose her. But she was a sinner and admitted she needed a savior in her magnificant. After conception, the Bible never says she was without sin. She was human - from Adam's race.
Why do you call her the Queen of Heaven? The Bible never mentions anything about her ruling with Him.
Did you know that Roman Catholics call Mary the "Queen of Heaven"? Did you know that the Bible talks about the queen of heaven? It does. The queen of heaven is A PAGAN GODDESS, A DEVIL-- Jeremiah 7:18 The children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead their dough, to make cakes to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and to pour out drink offerings unto other gods, that they may provoke me to anger.
Mary is a saved sinner just like any Christian.
I'm sure if Mary knew what people on earth were doing, she would be very sad. She knows who needs to be lifted up and worshipped - her Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ.
2007-10-09 05:15:13 · answer #2 · answered by Suzi♥Squirrel 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
We are all born with the potential to do great good or great evil. Our innate tendencies and how we are trained and educated determines and channels those potentials.
Every human quality can be warped to do evil or polished and honed to shine in service to humanity.
Christ, however, was no ordinary human. He belonged to another realm of creation, though physically he was human.
What does Jesus' birth have to do with his innate nature? Did his birth make him the way he was, or was he that way innately? Had he been born of both a man and a woman, would that make him any less that who he was? If he was born under a toadstool, would it make his life and words any less powerful and effective? Would he have had less impact on the world? I think not. I think you are looking at the wrong thing, this ridiculous argument about sinless birth, about Christ. The real question is, would you love him any less?
Oh, I almost forgot. Was Eve born sinless? Not only was her birth spectacular -- she was born out of Adam's side -- he too was a virgin and sinless when he had her! I think that's more miraculous than Mary birthing Christ vaginally, don't you?
2007-10-09 05:06:13 · answer #3 · answered by jaicee 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because sin in passed on through the man's sperm (Adam sinned) the ovum of Mary was fertilized by the Holy Spirit which
makes Jesus Christ sinless. Mary was born of a human father
which makes her sinful. Jesus in the uniquely born-one and He
is the only ONE sinless and can pay for the sins of all mankind.
It is blasphemy to equate Mary equal to Jesus. No one is born
sinless except JESUS CHRIST THE LORD OF ALL!
2007-10-09 05:08:28 · answer #4 · answered by war~horse 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes - it would be ridiculous, but it is using the same logic you are using. Do you have a Bible verse to show that Mary was sinless? I don't see one.
Jesus is sinless, because He is God.
2007-10-09 05:12:07 · answer #5 · answered by MikeM 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, no, and no. The immaculate conception refers to Mary's conception. You're thinking of the Virgin birth - which is basically pregnancy without sex. Hercules, Achilles, and Alexander the great, while said to be born of a god by some, were borne out of the act of intercourse between a god and a mortal. It's not the same thing at all.
2016-05-19 23:02:18 · answer #6 · answered by leeann 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
very simple..Marys sins are not passed down. Jesus is Gods gift! Sinless and Human..the only one ever! I dont know what this Marian Dogma thing is but I know what the Bible is and it says that Jesus is sinless therefore He is!
2007-10-09 05:21:54 · answer #7 · answered by knight_janette 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
If you read Genesis you will find the sins are passed through the father (Adam) not the mother.This is why God is Jesus' father. The Bible just says Mary was a virgin it does not say she was sinless.
2007-10-09 05:14:10 · answer #8 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Read Jeremiah. I was born sinless. Sin is separation from God. The bible no where states that man is born a sinner. David stated that he was born in sin--his parents were sinners, the world is sinful, etc. David was not a sinner until he sinned. We see that the effects of sin are often handed down--disease, shame, etc., but sin itself is imputed to the one who does it, not those related to those that do it. I am not a protestant. I am a Christian--one who follows Jesus and not man and his made up rules and regulations to explain an idea that has no foundation in scripture.
2007-10-09 05:34:12 · answer #9 · answered by Daniel K 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Correct. important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived "by the power of the Holy Spirit," in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what "immaculate" means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.
When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
The traditional translation, "full of grace," is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of "highly favored daughter." Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for "daughter"). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
Everyone should read this:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
2007-10-09 05:06:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋