Jesus's presence on earth was not only to glorify God, but to show people what is would be like when his kingdom came. Sort of like a pre election campaign. What, you're sick? Get up and go home. Dead? No problem. Blind? Here, you'll need these Ray Bans sort of thing. Well, not excately, but you get my drift. Turning water into wine is symbolic to show that everyone will be drinking 'wine' during his reign, not just 'water' and how easy it is for him to bless the earth to produce whatever humans need and want.
Can I get back to watching Wag The Dog now? Thanks.
2007-10-08 09:08:54
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answer #1
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answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7
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"Jesus had authority to perform miracles ... His authority was granted by god" How can you possibly know this? Did you overhear the conversation? Did Jesus tell you? The only possible explanation is that you made it up or someone else made this up and you are repeating what you heard. EDIT: So it's the latter of my 2 possibilities ... somebody else made this up [the authors of the bible] and you are repeating it. Or are you prepared to argue that the bible was written by god and not man? EDIT 2 I am not asking you to convince me of god. I am asking to explain how someone/anyone would know what god's intentions were with Jesus. If the bible was written by god that would explain it. If, however, it was written by man, I ask again, how would they know what god's intentions were? EDIT 3 End of discussion? Honey, is that you? If its the word of god, then how did he get so much of it wrong? Did god not know the earth was round? Why couldn't he get his story straight as to why Joseph and Mary went to Betheleham (Luke and Mathew give different reasons)? Why did he sanction slavery but since change his mind? If god approved of slavery then, why doesn't he now? The difference with science is that everything from those textbooks you hate so much, can and is tested by others. If the claim can't repeated or verified then it is dismissed. Thus, I don't actually need to see an electron to know that it exists; I can simply trust that it does. I can do so for 2 reasons: 1) because if electrons were later proved to not exist, I know from past experience that the theory will die then and there and 2) though I can't see an electron, I can see the predictions that come from the 'theory' of electrons ... like gravity. None of this can be said of the bible because it is apparently infallible. Even though there is physical proof that the bible is wrong (e.g on the age of the earth) you still think the bible is never wrong. PS So someone told you that they spoke with god and transcribed his words. I have this great deal for you, there is a bridge running over the Hudson, not more than 20 years old - I'll sell it to you for ... say, $20,000. Deal? EDIT 4 No need to get mean, though it is pretty typical. As soon as you can't answer the question, you attack the person right? I'm not trying to give you a sales pitch for atheism, I am simply questioning the authority of the bible. I'm not even trying to convince you that god doesn't exist. All I'm saying is this, what makes you think the church knows more about god than you do? God may or may not exist, but one thing is certain ... your church and the authors of your bible are lying to you. They make things up and when some evidence comes along to prove it wrong, they back track and say that "it's not meant literally, that's supposed to be symbolic ... oh that part over there, no that's still literal". Believe in god all you want, I would simply suggest that you take a slightly more critical view on your authorities of god. Or to put it another way, there are hundreds of competing religions with mutually exclusive claims. What makes you think yours is the right one? I'll leave you with an example: A couple hundred years ago, the pope declared that "babies who die before they are baptized, go to this place called limbo". Then about a decade ago, the pope says "actually there is no longer such a place as limbo". Now hearing this, would you change your opinion of the pope's authority here? Would you ask the question: how did the pope know that there was a place called limbo, did god tell him? How did the more recent pope conclude that there is no limbo? Did god call him up again? Last comment - I am not trying to demean or belittle, though I guess it may come off that way. I simply enjoy a good debate. EDIT Interfere with irrelevant questions eh? My original response was very relative and, by the way, you have yet to answer it even though apparently it has been answered hundreds of times elsewhere. Nevertheless, clearly I have offended you. For that I apologize. Sincerely. I won't post again.
2016-05-19 01:05:22
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answer #2
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answered by vernice 3
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No, not at all! The turning of water into wine was not for the purpose of making a 'swinging party'. The fullness of the messianic age was prophesied in Isaiah an spoken of so beautifully through the symbol of marriage (Isa. 62:5), and the vision of the consummation of all history will be celebrated in the marriage of the "Lamb and His wife" How highly suggestive then that Jesus' first miracle, inaugurating the messianic age, should be the sign given at the wedding at Cana.
It was the sacred duty of the host to provide ample refreshments for all guests. They might even be liable to a lawsuit if the wine failed. "No Wine". Here is the impoverishment of the Old Covenant, the cry of spiritual need, the yearning for the messianic wine. Jesus turns the water into wine... With us humans the best usually comes first! We dress up, put on our best manners, and hope others won't find out how empty and needy we really are behind our smiles. We clean up the front room and hope our guests don't go in the back rooms where we've hurriedly shoved all the messes. This is not th Lord Jesus' way. With Him, the best comes at the end! The grace we tasted at the beginning we now drink freely, knowing the rich wonder of forgiveness and life in the Spirit; the Jesus we came to know as Savior, at the start, we now worship as the triumphant risen Lord of all creation; the Spirit hs moved us from he haulting phrases of a payer of requests t the joy of constant communion that never ceases when we call out to our Creator God. And death, at the end, will open the door for us to eternal life with our God. Surely, this will be wine at its best.
Here's the deeper meaning of that scripture in John 2:13-25
The old win of the law, has given out. No taste. "But you have kept the good wine until now." In God's time, the new creation has come. The 'age of grace' has broken in. Jesus is among us now... and He pours out the rich wine ofthe "end times" and there's enough for everyone! The miracle was performed to be the 'first sign' that the authority of Jesus is over the physical universe. A door to spiritual reality has been opened. Jesus authenticates Himself by what He does. Through this act, Jesus opened the door to life in His age of Grace. The reign of God has begun. In the 'pouring out of this new wine' the glory of Jesus is made known. AS a sensitive Roman Catholic writer says, referring to the miracles, "epiphanies of the risen Lord, signs anticipating the ultimate truth about Jesus which will only be fully revealed when His hour has been achieved." What a great day this was!! More than a wedding.... a new time!!!
2007-10-08 09:37:35
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answer #3
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answered by Mercedes 6
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In the days of Jesus' lifetime here on earth, wine was mixed with 3 parts water, for drinking from the waters of the earth had bacteria and other living organisms in them. The wine helped to kill such things.
Apparently the groom, did not have enough money to pay for more wine, thus Mary asked Jesus if he could do something for them.
Jesus replied: "Woman what has this to do with me?" Out of concern for the bride and groom, Jesus turned the water into very good wine. Signifying that when his Fathers kingdom manifests itself on the earth, everything will be supplied to human kind. He cured the the blind, lame, ill, those who's bones were malaligned, even those possessed by demon's.
He did all this to prove that he was God's son, and that by the kingdom, all the things plaguing mankind today in this system will be done away with. Even death, by the many resurrections he performed.
2007-10-08 09:26:54
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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From Old Testament (Proverbs speaks of "wine that makes glad the heart of Man") perspective wine-drinking is not sinful; excess and drunkenness is.
It was a sign also (the miracles in John are not just miracles, they illustrate things, men can ponder over them) regarding the New Covenant.
At the feast the best wine came out late
-God brings in a new and better covenant late
Ceremonial purification jars of water are turned into enjoyable wine
-Jesus transforms legalism into joy
2007-10-08 09:09:30
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answer #5
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answered by Cader and Glyder scrambler 7
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At a wedding in those days, which lasted for days, the host was pretty much made or lost on the quality of the wine served. To run out of wine would have been hugely embarassing. It has been suggested, in true theoretical style, that the wedding was of one of Jesus's siblings, which is why Mary was involved in the whole wine thing. I'm sure it was a different drink to the wine we know and love these days, and Jesus was not against drinking as such, just against getting drunk. Which is very wise, she says downing a double G and T.......
2007-10-08 09:08:05
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answer #6
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answered by good tree 6
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there is nothing inherently wrong with wine. There is something wrong with being ruled by the wine. Just like there is nothing wrong with money, the LOVE of money is the root of all evil.
When you love something more then God, thats when its bad. No thing is bad in and of itself.
so why would it be demeaning of miracles for Jesus to turn water into wine? Jesus never said we couldnt have fun.
2007-10-08 09:14:01
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answer #7
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answered by apple1821 2
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How shallow we can be in logic whenever God is concerned,God is overly generous and this miracle shows this, the young couple were expected to keep their guests supplied for at least several days and when the wine ran out they would have been ashamed, Jesus not only spared them this but actually made enough wine to take care of the entire length of the wedding feast but more besides, this same generousity of God is seen too in the feeding of the five thousand.
2007-10-08 09:09:25
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answer #8
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answered by Sentinel 7
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I have often wondered about that and recently recieved an explanation. Thetre were certain social obligations at the feast one of which was that sufficient food and drink should be available for the celibration. to fail to do this meant social consequences disgrace and even imprisonment.
Christ was not asked to operform a miracle but informed of the problem. i do not think his mother expected him to do anything about it. knowing the consequences of his hosts failure, he used his powers to save the host from at best humiliation.
This can not therefore be regarded as an abuse of power but an act of mercy
2007-10-08 09:49:19
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answer #9
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answered by Scouse 7
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Please get a grip on reality . . .
Jesus turning water into wine, because His mother asked Him to was to show the people that He supplies what is needed.
Wine was always served at weddings and was no different for the people of that day than refreshments being served at a wedding today.
You're missing the real point of the water being turned into wine, the fact that He turned plain water into wine is the miracle.
God Bless You
2007-10-08 09:11:18
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answer #10
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answered by B Baruk Today 6
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