English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I am just thinking that now we know it doesnt take intercourse to get pregnant - as a matter of fact it takes as little as seminal fluid dripping on the vagina to get pregnant. With these modern discoveries is it possible that she actually was a virgin when Yeshua was concepted?

2007-10-08 06:15:43 · 4 answers · asked by Mr. Nobody 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

Do you ask questions all day long??? Do you ever get out of the house??..Enjoy life-stop questionning it !!!

2007-10-08 06:46:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Certainly, although I do not think Jesus was in any way shape or form a god, it is biologically possible for a girl, who is technically a virgin to get pregnant. However, that is not the point of the story. Luke uses the word kecharitomene to describe Mary, using the words of the angel.

For that to apply to Mary, she would have to have been born without the taint of original sin. Your hypothesis negates Luke's point. If she engaged in any sexual activity with Joseph outside of marriage, then the angel was lying because as of that moment, at least, Mary had remained outside the natural order. That is why the virgin birth, immaculate conception of Mary and the assumption of Mary are so important to Catholics. If any of those fall apart, either the book of Revelations falls apart (in the case of the Assumption) or the Gospel of Luke falls apart.

So yes, it is biologically possible she was a technical virgin. Religiously it is not possible that your hypothesis is correct if Jesus is God. The intertwining of the New Testament stories create a contradiction of the first order under your hypothesis. If you are right, then Christianity is over. It is simply the accidental formation of a movement from a group under tremendous emotional stress and loss. Such groups in fact form quite often, but few last more than a few centuries.

2007-10-08 07:04:14 · answer #2 · answered by OPM 7 · 1 1

Yes, but you're missing several points.

First that she didn't "bone god" - the holy spirit entered her and Jesus was concieved. This is why she's sometimes called "Logos Mater" - ie: Mother of The Word.

Secondly, the word "virgin" is a mistranslation. In the ORIGINAL text it only means "young woman of marriageable age."

Thirdly, I still think you're confused about the term "immaculate conception." It has to do with MARY'S conception, not the conception of Jesus.

Fourth, "concepted" is not actually a word.

2007-10-08 07:52:06 · answer #3 · answered by Delicious Pear 5 · 0 0

Opm is on to something I think And the girl under him is a bit vague in my opinion, but that's me...
To answer you Rabbi I have to answer her to.
Does it matter in the long run if we prove or disprove isn't your belief in this strong enough?
How where the surroundings at this time for the jewish people in Israel? Very bad, if you had sex out side marriage= death, (then again if you missed shabbes it was equally bad sin as sin).
She did what ever a smart girl like her did said it was the holy spirit. ( I know I would)
do we now for certain what happened and will we? Answer to both: NO

Yes, it's possible to to se if she was a virgin when she conceived.
But it as much possible as she wasn't a virgin she conceived.

2007-10-08 23:52:03 · answer #4 · answered by Michaela S 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers