2007-10-07 03:11:35 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus is the Father's "only begotten son" (John 3:16). The Son is begotten, i.e., born as a child, not made, like everyone else. As the Nicene Creed further explains, the Son is "God from God, light from light, and true God from true God, one in being with the Father."
We also know from John 1 that this Son "was with God in the beginning," which means that we has always been with God. There was no time that the Father had no Son.
As you point out, Mark uses "Son of God" for Jesus from the very first verse of his gospel. That the Son of God is on earth is the great "messianic secret," that even demons confess (Mark 3:11; 5:7). By the crucifixion (Mark 15:39), even Roman soldiers know who Jesus is: "Surely this man was the Son of God!"
Cheers,
Bruce
2007-10-07 07:27:40 · answer #1 · answered by Bruce 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was son of God, God in God, God begotten from the Holy Spirit which was already in existance with the father in heaven.
2007-10-07 10:33:52 · answer #2 · answered by Sage 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This was an allusion to an Old Testament prophet, I think. Maybe it was Elisha, who used that term for himself to show his humility. Jesus adapted it as His own.
2007-10-07 10:20:05 · answer #3 · answered by Acorn 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is a metaphor. The other titles are 'son of man' son of Mary. . . "We all are children of God" is another metaphor.
2007-10-07 10:17:12 · answer #4 · answered by hasanmuizudin 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋