2007-10-07 01:08:35 · 21 answers · asked by jimmy 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Weddings
It comes from the bible and there are many verses. Here's one... Mark 10:6-9 "But at the beginning of creation God made them male and female. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh. So they are no longer two, but one. There what God has joined together, let man not separate."
The married couple have an intimate relationship because they share a level of relating that exists with no other person apart from their spouse (marriage partner). Sex defines marriage and to have sex with someone other than the spouse would be adultery (cheating on the spouse). Sex gives meaning to the marriage because limiting sex to one partner, which is the spouse, expresses commitment and encourages the couple to invest emotionally in each other because they know they will remain together until death they depart.
Marriage involves two people willingly committing themselves to each other until one dies (emotional commitment), joining together as one in the act of sex (physical commitment) and God carrying out his part in the spiritual realm (spiritual commitment).
And one more thing...this for the answerer above me... There's no gender specific kind of adultery. Sin is sin. Look at this verse:
Proverbs 5:15-17 "You should be faithful to your wife, just as you take water from your own well. And don’t be like a stream from which just any woman can have a drink. Save yourself for your wife and don’t have sex with other women."
2007-10-07 05:36:26 · answer #1 · answered by Jasmine808 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Several reasons relating to control.
1). A woman is considered property and to the father a bargaining chip. If she makes a good marriage the father comes out of it wealthier and the husband gets a woman who is guaranteed to have only legitimate children as she has not had sex beforehand.
2). If you have never had sex you can't know if you are getting a raw deal as you have nothing to compare it against. This results in less discontent from the female.
3). It was always acceptable for the male to have sex before marriage but not the female. Only recently have some men decided to wait. This may be due to religious views of two souls joining in the union of marriage. Until the actual rite of marriage they are not at all bound to each other.
2007-10-07 10:14:07 · answer #2 · answered by Stiffler 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The reason to have no sex before marriage was to ensure that the groom (husband) was the father of the children that issued from the marriage. If the woman was kept pure and a virgin at marriage, then the husband was the first and only one to implant sperm in her womb.
2007-10-07 08:58:52 · answer #3 · answered by Princess Picalilly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Marriage is a way to regulate sex for a variety of reasons, but my suspicion is that it comes from the fact that at a certain point in human history, women stopped being able to provide for themselves (because men did this to them). Because women are so vital to the continuation of the male half of the species, men had to provide for women and take them on as their property.
This did NOT come from the bible. The bible came second.
2007-10-07 08:26:44 · answer #4 · answered by some female 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not that many thousands of years ago, humans hadn't discovered the phenomenon of paternity. We pretty much knew that babies came when women had sex, but hadn't yet grasped that men contributed genetic traits. The Biblical story of Jacob winning Laban's daughters, Leah and Rachel, is about the discovery that the male contributes traits; Jacob has discovered how to breed goats (or was it sheep?) for a particular color of coat.
Once men discovered that being father meant creating a little human that was "bone of my bone", they wanted to be sure that they, not some other fellow, was a child's dad. To be sure, a fellow would want to have a virgin to bear his child, a wife who didn't have relations with other men. It was all about the switch from matriarchal, matrilinieal culture to patriachal, patrilineal culture.
2007-10-07 12:40:23 · answer #5 · answered by kill_yr_television 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have no idea but I heard it was derived from some verse in the bible. I actually think it's a good custom that has been practiced for generations & I think each & every culture agrees with it. Personally, Im not really keen about the whole thing because nowadays most people don't really consider it & I believe that when the time is right plus with the 'right' person then why not because it might end that you actually get married to the person.
2007-10-07 08:19:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
It came from the Bible. God established commandments with His people and one of those commandments was to not have sex outside of marriage, to maintain sexual purity in the eyes of God. Sex is a covenant between man and woman, it bonds the two forever.
2007-10-07 20:32:15 · answer #7 · answered by mums_the_word 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In past ages both women and children were considered to be a man's legal property. To have sex with a man's daughter before you had married her (bargained for her) was a legal trespass upon his property which would tend to devalue her in the marketplace. Thus, the term "damaged goods" is still occasionally used today in reference to an unchaste woman.
WK
2007-10-07 08:21:44 · answer #8 · answered by olin1963 6 · 6⤊ 0⤋
I beleive in destiny but I still think you have to fight to save your marriage. Especially if you have children.
This ebook is a good resource to understand causes of your marital issues and to learn some important tips --> http://savemarriage.toptips.org
2014-09-27 18:57:57 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Men used to feel that women were property and only existed to provide the heir and a spare. The men wouldn't marry someone who wasn't a virgin because they wanted to be sure that any children born were theirs.
2007-10-07 10:10:31 · answer #10 · answered by maigen_obx 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋