Aristotle's works were taken to Constantinople. Later, the Arabs translated him. What use did they make of him

Question

The Arabs knew of Aristotle's works long before St. Thomas Aquinas rediscovered them for the Western world. Did the Arabs incorporate any of Aristotle into their culture, and if so, what effect did it have on them?

No, Hot Cocoa Puff, it does NOT look like it. That does not mean the Arabs themselves think they have not. Have they adopted him differently? Did they see him in ways we cannot or do not? Or was it just an academic act of translation with no consequences? Not all Arabs are Muslim. The second largest religion in the Arab world is Christianity, via the Coptics. Aristotle influenced the Roman Church through Aquinas. Has this affected the Coptics? Do the Muslims THEMSELVES

No, Hot Cocoa Puff, it does NOT look like it. That does not mean the Arabs themselves think they have not. Have they adopted him differently? Did they see him in ways we cannot or do not? Or was it just an academic act of translation with no consequences? Not all Arabs are Muslim. The second largest religion in the Arab world is Christianity, via the Coptics. Aristotle influenced the Roman Church through Aquinas. Has this affected the Coptics? Do the Muslims THEMSELVES think they have been influenced by Aristotle? This is not an academic question on my part. I really don't know, and I want to know.

I would appreciate a few answers from educated Muslims or other Arabs or Persians. Or just tell me a web site that will answer my question. Thank you very much.

Answer 1

Who, pray tell, would ask such a question? Why would one seek deeper meaning in these regards? I must admit that I am intrigued.

Unfortunately for the would-be influence that Aristotle may've (should've!) had, two major themes were already cemented into the consciousness of those who might've taken him in a more serious and deliberative fashion. As time is of the essence, I shall be brief:

1. They'd already translated Plato, so the assimilation of Aristotle was done through a neoplatonic interpretation.

2. Plato, Plotinus and neoplatonism suited the mindset of the middle east as it did not confound traditional religious beliefs. These beliefs have never been as open to possible classification as opinion as they have been in the west.

Consequently, Aristotle proper had basically no incorporation into Arab culture.

Answer 2

Do you have a television? Does it LOOK like Aristotle's works have been made use of much in that part of the world?!?

EDIT: I know that there are still Christians there, but their power is not at all influential like it used to be. The Muslims are taking over through force and violence, not through debate and votes. Christians don't get treated very well there, I know this from first hand individuals who used to live there and have moved west to escape the brutality and oppression. The radicals are the ones responsible for the tyranny and oppression, it is a very infantile mentality, and is preventing many from living decently and in peace. Even peaceful Muslims have to deal with the oppression based on what sect they belong to. It's just a no win situation at times.

EDIT PT. 2: The Christians have very traditional ways, and are pretty much "orthodox" when it comes to upholding their religion. The best example I can give you is the use of Greek in the celebration of masses. They use Greek rather than Latin, and that is proof that there is/was Greek influence in that area.

Answer 3

That would explain why the Rennaisance started in the cities that did a lot of trade with the Caliphate.