In Psalm 2:7, the Lord said to David: "...Thou art my son: this day have I begotten thee."
Does this mean that God had two sons or are some people playing with translations and the double meanings of words ?
(Matthew 5:45, 48). Luke 3:38 says: "...Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the Son of God."
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2007-10-04 20:26:36 · 11 answers · asked by Mithrianity 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Only begotten son like Isaac ???????????????????????????????????????????
1-----After Abraham had lived ten years in the land of Canaan, Abram's wife Sarai took Hagar the Egyptian, her maid, and gave her to her husband Abram as HIS WIFE. -- GENESIS 16:3
2------So Hagar bore Abram a son; and Abram called the name of HIS SON, whom Hagar bore, ISHMAEL. - GENESIS 16:15
3 ------And his sons Isaac and Ishmael buried him in the cave of Machpelah, in the field of Ephron the son of Zohar the Hittite, which [is] before Mamre; -- Gen 25:09
4 ------ Now these [are] the generations of Ishmael, Abraham's son, whom Hagar the Egyptian, bare unto Abraham: --- Gen 25:12
5 ------- And these [are] the names of the sons of Ishmael, by their names, according to their generations: the firstborn of Ishmael, Nebajoth; and Kedar, and Adbeel, and Mibsam ----- Gen 25:13
2007-10-04 20:38:36 · update #1
Another inconsistency for the christians to interpret to death. This means that but that means something else blah blah blah.
2007-10-04 20:31:12 · answer #1 · answered by penster_x 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Job 1:6 and 2:1 (GOD has many sons)
Adam was begotten by God (Luke 3:38)
Jesus is the firstson of God but in heaven (Colossians 1:15-17) but is not the only son that God has , all angels are sons of God, that is why Jesus has a voice of archangel (1 Thessa 4:16) and why the bible describe him as an angel (Revelation 10:1)
2007-10-04 20:34:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not Christians saying it... The Bible says it.
Jesus’ being called the “only-begotten Son” (Joh 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9) , even as Isaac was Abraham’s “only-begotten son” in a particular sense (his father already having another son but not by his wife Sarah).—Heb 11:17; Ge 16:15.
... Ishmael notwithstanding.
2007-10-04 20:35:24 · answer #3 · answered by conundrum 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
you know it always amazes me that that the very thing the non-believers accuse Christians of, interpreting the bible to fit their needs, is the same thing they do to try and counter act any teachings of Christianity.
The interpretation of the bible is always going to be something of a mystery. So I don''t claim to know everything about everything in the bible. What I do believe is that Jesus Christ is my Lord. It is called faith. Whether you choose to believe that is entirely up to you.
We have been commanded by God to provide everyone with the opportunity and the knowledge to make that decision on there own. I pray that you do. If you don't, I still love you and will miss you in God's kingdom.
2007-10-04 20:55:52 · answer #4 · answered by paul829201 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it also says "you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus" in Galatians 3:26. it's not the same. Jesus is the Son of God because he was with God before the world was ever made- before anything that exists was ever made. that's a different kind of sonship than adam's and david's. Jesus is the only son who was part man and part God.
the scripture you brought up in luke was referring to the fact that adam had no father because he was made by God- so in that sense God was his father. as far as the psalm, some people think that it refers to Jesus and not david.
2007-10-04 20:45:38 · answer #5 · answered by kimikei83 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Whe Christianity became the State (Roman) official religion they needed to get all the bishops together and decide what the "official" dogma would be. This happened in 312CE, in Nicea. So the Nicean Creed was created by commitee to make everybody happy and force Christians to agree and say the same thing. It had little to do with the actual teachings of Jesus or the Spiritual path of Judaism and onward.
Jesus said we are all sons of God. So the politics of Religion falsified the teachings of the one they claim to worship. (One who said not to worship him.)
2007-10-04 20:38:44 · answer #6 · answered by bahbdorje 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Eh, you could look at it this way:
Adam and David are part of the lineage of Jesus so all three begottens are refering to man being created (one begotten) and as Irenaeus would say, Jesus is the culmination or recapitulation of man as the perfect form, making him the only begotten.
OR
Take it as a blurb in the translation.
OR
Don't worry about it, it's not really one of the important parts.
2007-10-04 20:38:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
God had many sons. They helped populate the earth before God limited humans to 120 years tops.
6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,
6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
2007-10-04 20:33:15 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
i like to see the christians squirm and wriggle to try and explain these blatant contradiction.
they never manage to answer them satisfactorily.
2007-10-04 20:37:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
he said begotten thee not three...make that bible contradiction 235124
2007-10-04 20:30:39 · answer #10 · answered by T-monster 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋