Does this mean there was racial discrimination even in the old testament?The bible dictionary i have says that these people were tall & negorid (black)..I dont understand if we all came from Noha's family how this could be unless it was b4 the flood. I'm looking for honest answers only..
2007-10-04 16:07:55 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Miriam and Aaron Oppose Moses
Nu 12:1 Miriam and Aaron began to talk against Moses because of his Cushite wife, for he had married a Cushite.
I think that the reason that Miriam and Aaron "talked against" Moses was not just because he married a Cushite, but because they were jelous that Moses had a right relationship with God. They just used the racial thing as name calling, because they didn't want to admit the truth.
I think the changes of the races began with the devision just after the Tower of Babel.
Ge 11:9 That is why it was called Babel —because there the LORD confused the language of the whole world. From there the LORD scattered them over the face of the whole earth.
2007-10-04 16:24:48 · answer #1 · answered by exodust20 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Zipporah was the daughter of a Midianite prince. The Midianites inhabited the region east of the Jordan River.
Moses gained his wife when he fled to Midian and dwelled with her father.
The passage in Numbers is more correctly translated that Zipporah was a Cushite (Kushite).
The land of Cush was a general term for the region south of Israel, and would have included parts of Midian/Saudi Arabia, west to upper Egypt (aka Ethiopia).
2007-10-04 23:34:44 · answer #2 · answered by Bob L 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All throughout the Bible, God didn't want His people to marry UNBELIEVERS because He knew that they could lose their faith in Him because of it. He has nothing against any nation of people, just unbelievers. So Miriam and Moses objected to Moses marrying an unbeliever, not an Ethopian--or at least they should have.
As for Noah's family, they must've been a wide variety of people because the gene pool was much larger back then. Now the gene pool is quite thin. So it isn't too awfully hard to imagine that Noah's sons and daughters-in-law must've had a wide variety of traits and had many genes that weren't expressed yet.
2007-10-04 23:29:18 · answer #3 · answered by Gail S 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Racial discrimination as we know it today didn't really come on the scene until thousands of years later. Miriam could have been critical of Zipporah for being Ethiopian for any number of reasons--she was a Jewish convert instead of a born Jew, etc. There's also a tradition that "Cushite" was a synonym for beauty.
As for how a black person could have existed after the Flood . . . aren't there black people now?
2007-10-04 23:28:00 · answer #4 · answered by Cathy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here's an honest answer:
I saw the old movie "the 10 commandments", where Moses married the doughter of the priest of Midian. As I know Midian is in north of Arabia. I didn't think it's in Ethiopia!
Interesting point you're making though!
2007-10-05 00:04:11 · answer #5 · answered by Investor 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"And Miriam and Aaron spoke against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had married; for he had married an Ethiopian woman" (Num. 12.1).
It also says that Miriam got leporsy for speaking against Moses and Zipporah (but was healed later)
2007-10-04 23:14:48 · answer #6 · answered by Summertime 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋