that we are in the middle of a transition from verse 14 to verse 15 and then into the tribulation?
2007-10-04 15:00:14 · 13 answers · asked by Guardian 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
May I recommend a couple of websites that address this issue and many others:
http://www.bibleprophecytruth.com/
http://whitehorsemedia.com/
GOD bless
2007-10-04 15:04:54 · answer #1 · answered by Exodus 20:1-17 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes. But even more so because of what the Apostle Paul said about a great apostasy in the last days. Ever notice how the numbers of people who claim to be Atheists, Agnostics, Pagans, or who subscribe to New Age philosophies are rising at an alarming rate? And what about Revelation prophecy that speaks of one world government and one world religion, which will be run by the anti-Christ and the false prophet, respectively? Should it not give us pause when we hear constant talk of a New World Order and a vast ecumenical movement?
2007-10-04 22:08:07 · answer #2 · answered by Simon Peter 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Matt. 24 is often misunderstood. Who was Jesus speaking to? Jews. This passage has nothing to do with the Church or Christians, it is all about the Jews.
Jesus' ministry was to Israel; "He came to His own and His own received Him not." (John 1:11) The concept of "the Church," an amalgam of Jews and Gentiles together saved by grace through faith without the works of the Law, was completely unknown during the three-and-a-half years that Jesus walked among His people. This is not to say that the salvation of Gentiles had not been prophesied; it simply did become a reality until after Calvary. The Church as a separate and distinct body of believers within Israel - which body would expand to embrace Gentile believers - was not formed until Pentecost. So, as we read Jesus speaking among His Jewish followers, we must remember that He was neither addressing the Church, as such, nor making reference to a body of believers that had not yet been revealed in the process of time.
If you read the comparative passage in Luke 21 (written to Gentiles), you will notice some key differences.
2007-10-04 22:11:53 · answer #3 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No - the gospel has not yet been preached in all the lands. Further, many parts of the rest of the prophecy have occurred over and over since the time of Christ. We may be close, but remember too...Christ said no man will know the hour of his coming, but that it would be "soon." That was 2000 years ago, maybe soon in heavenly time, but not in human time.
2007-10-04 22:06:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Notice JC gave great(law) tribulation no place in Mt 24:21:
- it was not since time began till now, no, nor ever shall be.
When you stop giving it place, the grace us end will come
The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.
2007-10-05 18:17:28 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hard to say... isn't this an age old question? There have been wars all through the past 2000 years as well as pestilence and all the other prophesies... who knows when He shall return... but I guess you'll just have to be ready ;-)
2007-10-04 22:08:29 · answer #6 · answered by spiffy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I think you are right. Good point God bless
2007-10-04 22:56:23 · answer #7 · answered by Ron 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Could very well be.
Take care and may God bless you spiritually.
2007-10-04 22:03:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would tend to agree.
2007-10-04 22:03:06 · answer #9 · answered by Obed (original) 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
hummmm
2007-10-04 22:02:45 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋