This is for people who don't beleive the Trinity~!?

Question

I need Bible verses that contradict the Trinity so I can do a Bible study with somebody!

Answer 1

But what you say about :
Mt .28:19
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in[a] the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
1. Matthew 28:19 Or into; see Acts 8:16; 19:5; Romans 6:3; 1 Cor. 1:13; 10:2 and Gal. 3:27.

and 1John 5:8 the Holy Trinity is One God.

Answer 2

ok,put it this way.jesus dies,400 years of church history pass and then a political decision gets made.
the doctrine of the trinity is quite young in the grand sceme of things.
jesus himself left no explicit instruction on the matter,perhaps it would be safe to assume that the church became a political entity rather than a spiritual one.
i studied theology at college and when faced with the historical facts the fundies get very defensive all of a sudden.
the truth is that real christianity gets lost amid all the arguments.

Answer 3

John 20:17:Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’” (If the resurrected Jesus has a God, then it would be impossible for him to BE God)

Mark 13:32:“Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father." (If Jesus is God, how could he not know when the "day" is... it's like saying "I know a secret, but I was never told what it was)

1 Corinthians 15:24-28: "Next, the end, when he [Jesus] hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. For he must rule as king until [God] has put all enemies under his feet. As the last enemy, death is to be brought to nothing. For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." (This one is pretty self explanatory...)

Acts 2:33: "Therefore because he [Jesus] was exalted to the right hand of God and received the promised holy spirit from the Father, he has poured out this which you see and hear." (How can Jesus be sitting at the right hand of God and be himself God?)

And by the way, 1 John 5:7 actually says (continuing into verse 8):"For there are three witness bearers, the spirit and the water and the blood, and the three are in agreement." It doesn't say anything about the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost... the scripture that was quoted earlier is from a bible translation where the translator added spurious text from the margin of the Latin Vulgate.
Reference: It may first be noted that the words “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one” (KJ) found in older translations at 1 John 5:7 are actually spurious additions to the original text. A footnote in The Jerusalem Bible, a Catholic translation, says that these words are “not in any of the early Greek MSS [manuscripts], or any of the early translations, or in the best MSS of the Vulg[ate] itself.” A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, by Bruce Metzger (1975, pp. 716-718), traces in detail the history of the spurious passage. It states that the passage is first found in a treatise entitled Liber Apologeticus, of the fourth century, and that it appears in Old Latin and Vulgate manuscripts of the Scriptures, beginning in the sixth century. Modern translations as a whole, both Catholic and Protestant, do not include them in the main body of the text, because of recognizing their spurious nature.—RS, NE, NAB.
- from Insight Into the Scriptures

Answer 4

Another approach would be as I have done in the past.

Please show me where the trinityis explained in the words of God. I have found nothing that says anything other than the Father the Son and the Holy spirit.

Why would Jesus be the ONLY begotten by himself?

Answer 5

Good luck.

1Jo 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Answer 6

In New Orleans at least, the holy trinity is onions, green peppers, and celery.

Answer 7

you are better of studying how the bible came about...how it has been edited.manipulated and perverted by the catholic church before it became our modern versions.....every priest (i am an ordained minister)learns the truth about Christianity in seminary school and is sworn to secrecy about the true intend behind christianity.....i.e. how to controll the ignorant masses with fear,guilt and self hatred...

Answer 8

exodus 20:3 - "you shall have no gods besides me."

deut 6:4 - "hear o israel, the L-rd our G-d, the L-rd is one."

isaiah 44:6 - "for I am the first and I am the last, and beside me there is no G-d."

hosea 11:9 - "for I am G-d and not a man."

hosea 13:4 - "and thout shalt know no god but Me, for there is no saviour beside Me."

that's all i can think of off the top of my head.

Answer 9

Matt. 26:39, RS: “Going a little farther he [Jesus Christ] fell on his face and prayed, ‘My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou wilt.’” (If the Father and the Son were not distinct individuals, such a prayer would have been meaningless. Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will would of necessity have been the Father’s will.)
John 8:17, 18, RS: “[Jesus answered the Jewish Pharisees:] In your law it is written that the testimony of two men is true; I bear witness to myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness to me.” (So, Jesus definitely spoke of himself as being an individual separate and distinct from the Father.)
Col. 1:15, 16, RS: “He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth.” In what sense is Jesus Christ “the first-born of all creation”? (1) Trinitarians say that “first-born” here means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; thus Christ would be understood to be, not part of creation, but the most distinguished in relation to those who were created. If that is so, and if the Trinity doctrine is true, why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the firstborn of all creation? But the Bible applies this expression only to the Son. According to the customary meaning of “firstborn,” it indicates that Jesus is the eldest in Jehovah’s family of sons. (2) Before Colossians 1:15, the expression “the firstborn of” occurs upwards of 30 times in the Bible, and in each instance that it is applied to living creatures the same meaning applies—the firstborn is part of the group. “The firstborn of Israel” is one of the sons of Israel; “the firstborn of Pharaoh” is one of Pharaoh’s family; “the firstborn of beast” are themselves animals. What, then, causes some to ascribe a different meaning to it at Colossians 1:15? Is it Bible usage or is it a belief to which they already hold and for which they seek proof? (3) Does Colossians 1:16, 17 (RS) exclude Jesus from having been created, when it says “in him all things were created . . . all things were created through him and for him”? The Greek word here rendered “all things” is pan´ta, an inflected form of pas. At Luke 13:2, RS renders this “all . . . other”; JB reads “any other”; NE says “anyone else.” (See also Luke 21:29 in NE and Philippians 2:21 in JB.) In harmony with everything else that the Bible says regarding the Son, NW assigns the same meaning to pan´ta at Colossians 1:16, 17 so that it reads, in part, “by means of him all other things were created . . . All other things have been created through him and for him.” Thus he is shown to be a created being, part of the creation produced by God.
Rev. 1:1; 3:14, RS: “The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him . . . ‘And to the angel of the church in La-odicea write: “The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning [Greek, ar·khe´] of God’s creation.”’” (KJ, Dy, CC, and NW, as well as others, read similarly.) Is that rendering correct? Some take the view that what is meant is that the Son was ‘the beginner of God’s creation,’ that he was its ‘ultimate source.’ But Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon lists “beginning” as its first meaning of ar·khe´. (Oxford, 1968, p. 252) The logical conclusion is that the one being quoted at Revelation 3:14 is a creation, the first of God’s creations, that he had a beginning. Compare Proverbs 8:22, where, as many Bible commentators agree, the Son is referred to as wisdom personified. According to RS, NE, and JB, the one there speaking is said to be “created.”)

Answer 10

Mark 12:29-32

29..."And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:

30...And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment.

31...And the second is like, namely this, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. There is none other commandment greater than these.

32...And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he:..."



John 17:3

3..."And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent."