2007-10-04 09:01:46 · 15 answers · asked by Ťango 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
well, isn't that the bottomline of what the newbie-Christians are preaching about?
2007-10-04 09:04:25 · update #1
Ted, believe me, it's people like you who have ignorance that's hard to overcome. that's the reason why I've come up with this question, because what people like you are preaching is only partial truth that mislead other people to believing in lies.
2007-10-04 09:10:23 · update #2
Jesus when He died and went to paradise/purgatory he preached to all those who died before His birth and His death, those who believed were retrived and carried to heaven after Jesus resurrected and walked the earth for another 40 days
2007-10-04 09:08:02 · answer #1 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 3⤊ 4⤋
1 Peter 3:18 - 22 states:
18 For Christ also hath once asuffered for sins, the just for the bunjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to cdeath in the flesh, but quickened by the dSpirit:
19 By which also he went and apreached unto the bspirits in cprison;
20 aWhich sometime were bdisobedient, when once the clongsuffering of God waited in the days of dNoah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were esaved by fwater.
21 The like figure whereunto even abaptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
22 Who is gone into aheaven, and is on the right hand of God; bangels and cauthorities and powers being made subject unto him.
And 1 Peter 4:1 - 6 states:
1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same amind: bfor he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from csin;
2 That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the alusts of men, but to the will of God.
3 For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, aexcess of wine, brevellings, banquetings, and cabominable didolatries:
4 Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:
5 Who shall give account to him that is ready to ajudge the bquick and the dead.
6 aFor for this cause was the bgospel cpreached also to them that are ddead, that they might be ejudged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
So Christ visited the spirits in the Spirit World. Why did He do this if they could not be saved? He taught them His gospel so that they could be saved. Paul, in 1 Corinthians 15, talks of baptism for the dead and the resurrection of souls. If they dead could not be saved, why did they practice that?
So, in other words, the souls who dies without hearing the words of Christ are taught them in the Spirit World and they are saved. Jesus died so that ALL MANKIND could be saved - not just those who lived after He came.
2007-10-04 16:14:13 · answer #2 · answered by kdollmusic 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
In Catholicism, they go to limbo, in other sects, it varies. Most branches of the judeo-christian-islamic faiths dont' have an official answer. Of those that do address the question, about half say they are judged the same as christians, and half say they go directly to hell.
2007-10-04 16:11:18 · answer #3 · answered by juicy_wishun 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
What really is the point of asking a question like that? The people who believe all that stuff about hell are going to say "Yes" and those who think it's all a load of gobbledegook are going to reply "No". You will then be no closer to knowing, factually, than you were before you asked LOL
2007-10-04 16:06:47 · answer #4 · answered by sharmel 6 · 4⤊ 3⤋
1 Peter 4:6 "For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit."
1 Peter 3:18,19. "Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the Just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened in the spirit, by which [two
experiences--death and resurrection] He preached
unto the spirits in prison."
2007-10-04 16:08:37 · answer #5 · answered by Desir D 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋
Thats a good question since the bible was not the first religion. This should be interesting
2007-10-04 16:04:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 2⤋
Yes, and Hell's waiting for the Bible fundamentalists.
2007-10-04 16:05:55 · answer #7 · answered by neshama 5 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Silly silly, the people before A.D. didn't have souls!
Bahumbug! What an outrageous claim.
2007-10-04 16:04:52 · answer #8 · answered by Ana Makes Art. 3 · 3⤊ 4⤋
No. they are the lucky ones, not burdened with the guilt imposed by fundamentalists.
2007-10-04 16:04:45 · answer #9 · answered by howie r 5 · 4⤊ 3⤋
u know there were other prophtes at tht time and thy might not be offering a realigon but thy were offering the belive in god and who ever belived in god and did the right things wont be in hell
2007-10-04 16:05:02 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 4⤋