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What he preached is NOT an indication of his sexuality. He could easily be a homosexual or bisexual and still preach differently. I am looking for a sentence that directly and without doubt say that he is/was heterosexual.

Please don't respond with things like: "Where does it say he wasn't heterosexual"
Please answer the question, instead of expressing your ignorance by avoiding the question.

To the christian "I do not like the question - I'll have it removed for blasphemy"... Save it - the question does NOT violate the guidelines. DONT ABUSE THE REPORT-SYSTEM!!!!!

2007-10-03 12:44:01 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

TiBarbie: Damn girl!

2007-10-03 12:49:46 · update #1

19 answers

Christ didn't have sex...so he wasn't an "-sexual" of any kind.
Sexual preference is preference....action is action...Jesus has no recorded sexual activity of any kind.
*"Humbert* : he hung out with men and women...the first person he appeared to after his resurrection was a woman, even!

2007-10-03 12:50:00 · answer #1 · answered by hez b 3 · 5 3

There is nothing in the Gospels or the other books of the New Testament that specifically says that he was. Keep in mind though that even in cultures in the ancient world where homosexuality was tolerated - Ancient Greece for example - a man may take a male lover but it was still a societal expectation that he marry and have children. Jonathan was quite taken by David in the Hebrew Bible but had he lived he would have had to take a wife, that's just how things were.

Some speculate that because Jesus was unmarried it is some indication of his sexual orientation. Jesus did not marry because he was the Son of God and because he knew he was going to die. We know he was not married because there is no mention of a wife or children when he speaks from the Cross. He entrusts his mother Mary to his beloved disciple John to take care of.

Did Jesus approve of homosexuality? We don't really know. However, the story of the Roman Centurian who come to Jesus to ask for the cure of his slave may give us a hint. Commentators have noted that it would have been highly unlikely for a Roman to have taken such a person interest in the welfare of a slave unless there was a more intimate relationship. When the Centurian asks Jesus to cure the slave, Jesus proceeds to make his way to the Centurian's home. This could mean that He knew of the men's relationship but chose not to comment on it. The mere fact that Jesus would offer to cure a Centurian's slave would have been scandalous - Romans were THE ENEMY. Jesus shows no judgement. He is asked for help and he readily offers it, eventually praising the Centurian for his great faith and trust in Jesus. In fact, the Centurians words "Lord I am not worthy to receive you" are still used today in some Christian liturgies, specifically in the Roman Catholic Church.

2007-10-03 20:02:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Whatever it says in the bible, most historians aren't even sure Jesus ever existed, nevermind what sexual orientation he may have had.

The biblical account of Jesus is absolutely devoid of personality or identifying characteristics altogether, just as many accounts of mythical figures are. It's simply a bunch of disjointed tales. The ones that are supposed to be real kind of merge into the ones that are supposed to be fables (parables) so that the entire morass reads like a fairytale.

Jesus is neither homo nor heterosexual because Jesus is not.

2007-10-03 20:05:41 · answer #3 · answered by nora22000 7 · 4 0

Well, nowhere in the main canon.;

The Gospel of Phillip found in the Nag Hamandi Library illudes to him loving Mary Magdalane more than the other girls:
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There were three who always walked with the Lord: Mary, his mother, and her sister, and Magdalene, the one who was called his companion

And the companion of the Saviour is Mary Magdalene. Jesus loved her more than all the disciples, and used to kiss her often on her mouth. The rest of the disciples were jealous. They said to him "Why do you love her more than all of us?" The Savior answered and said to them,"Why do I not love you like her? When a blind man and one who sees are both together in darkness, they are no different from one another. When the light comes, then he who sees will see the light, and he who is blind will remain in darkness." ----
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However, that Jesus loved Mary more than the others has nothing to do with her being a woman, rather it has to do with her being able to see her light within, while many of the disciples were still fumbling in the dark.

The desires of your body have nothing to do with who you are, for the soul is only a passenger. That is one of the main teachings of Jesus.

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80. Jesus said, "Whoever has come to know the world has discovered the body, and whoever has discovered the body, of that one the world is not worthy."

Jesus said, "How miserable is the body that depends on a body, and how miserable is the soul that depends on these two."
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2007-10-03 20:08:24 · answer #4 · answered by Yoda 6 · 0 0

Very specifically, Jesus kept the Law, and the Law stated that homosexual behavior was punishable by death. Mind you, that is Old Testament Law, but Jesus said He fulfilled the Law, and satisfied its righteous requirements.

In the New Testament, it is not a "law" to stone homosexuals (in fact, Paul said that those who DO live by the Law shall also be JUDGED by the Law, so stoning homosexuals is a "no-no"), but Paul DOES make it clear that this kind of behavior either leads to, or is the result of a reprobate mind and heart.

And, as a Christian, I would NEVER report you, but rather try to correct your misguided thinking.

2007-10-03 19:53:00 · answer #5 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 2 3

There is no where in the bible that speaks of Jesus-es personal being, there are so many lies regarding Jesus es life that I don't even want to answer them any more.

2007-10-03 19:52:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Well since Jesus' father said "homosexuality" is an abomination, his obedient perfect son probably wasn't.
But your right, there is no verse that says he was heterosexual. But there also aren't any verses saying he was homo/bisexual.
So, it's pretty much up to any ones speculation as to what sexual orientation he was.


--Buddhist.

2007-10-03 19:52:47 · answer #7 · answered by 5 · 1 1

There isn't a verse that says "My name is Jesus and I'm gay", there's not a verse that says "My name is Jesus and I'm bi", and there's not a verse that says "My name is Jesus and I'm straight" but...

He couldn't be homosexual or bisexual because to practice homosexuality is a sin according to the Bible, and Jesus is perfect, sinnless. So therefore no, it doesn't outright say it, but then again there is no need to because it's a sin and Jesus is sinnless. So it most certainly was a part of His testimony and shows His "sexuality" because He is sinnless.

GG trying to play the "Your supposed lack of proof is my proof to the contrary" card, but your statements are just to rile people up right? Is that how you pass your time? Go play some online game like World of Warcraft. It's a bit more interesting. ;)

2007-10-03 20:11:16 · answer #8 · answered by Thomas The Servant 4 · 0 5

The Bible doesn't indicate an interest in either sex. Anything beyond that is conjecture, opinion, hope, guesses or fiction.

2007-10-03 19:53:26 · answer #9 · answered by Nightwind 7 · 5 0

Wasn't he married to Mary Magdalene?

2007-10-03 19:54:41 · answer #10 · answered by inrealtime 2 · 0 1

"He could easily be a homosexual or bisexual and still preach differently."

No he also preached against hypocrisy. Why would i still listen to him after such an obvious offense? But he wasn't gay nor married so i listen to him, because he kept what he said.

2007-10-03 19:48:18 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 3 4

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