2007-10-03 10:40:02 · 5 answers · asked by Cori 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
WHERE in the Bible does it say that?
2007-10-03 10:52:05 · update #1
This phrase is in Acts 10:34 (see also Romans 2:11). In the KJV it says: '... I (Peter) perceive that God is no respecter of persons'.
In the NASV: '... Opening his mouth, Peter said: “I most certainly understand now that God is not one to show partiality'.
Most modern translations talk of no partiality rather than no respecter.
2007-10-03 11:01:10 · answer #1 · answered by cheir 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A person is a personality. The Christ that was in Jesus was the only person that is above all else. Since Jesus was created to be the King of Kings that is one indicator. Also it teaches throughout the text of the scriptures that God treats every person with the same amount of respect. If you read the Bible you will have no doubt to the collection of determinations, that would indicate, that God is not a respector of persons.
2007-10-03 17:49:07 · answer #2 · answered by happylife22842 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suspect that if the Bible said that, it would spell "respecter" correctly.
2007-10-03 17:45:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It says.. there is neither man nor woman, Greek or Jew, all are children under God.
2007-10-03 17:47:21 · answer #4 · answered by PROBLEM 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because it is not His will that any should perish that all should come to repentance to have eternal life.
2007-10-03 17:44:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋