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Why RCatholic still call Mary virgin until this time? How could it be?

Is it really biblical to recite the rosary? if it is biblical what particular scipture(s) that proves it?

2007-10-02 15:29:30 · 19 answers · asked by Ephesians 2:8 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

"The teaching about Virgin Mary.

"The whole dogmatic teaching about our Lady can be condensed into these two names of hers: the Mother of God (Theotokos) and the Ever-Virgin (aiparthenos). Both names have the formal authority of the Church Universal, an ecumenical authority indeed. The Virgin Birth is plainly attested in the New Testament and has been an integral part of the Catholic tradition ever since. "Incarnate by the Holy Spirit of the Virgin Mary" (or "Born of the Virgin Mary") is a credal phrase. It is not merely a statement of the historical fact. It is precisely a credal statement, a solemn profession of faith. The term "Ever-Virgin" was formally endorsed by the Fifth Ecumenical Council (553). And Theotokos is more than a name or an honorific title. It is rather a doctrinal definition-in one word. It has been a touchstone of the true faith and a distinctive mark of Orthodoxy even before the Council of Ephesus (432)." - http://www.fatheralexander.org/booklets/english/maria_florovsky_e.htm

But in actuality, these titles were given to Mary several hundred years after scripture was completed because of the pagan Mother Goddess who was so popular and had the very same titles.

2007-10-02 15:46:11 · answer #1 · answered by ted t 4 · 1 1

Yes.. Mary became pregnant without human interaction.

The Rosary draws from the Gospel the presentation of the mysteries and its main formulas . As it moves from the angel's joyful greeting and the Virgin's pious assent, the Rosary takes its inspiration from the Gospel to suggest the attitude with which the faithful should recite it. In the harmonious succession of Hail Mary's, the Rosary puts before us once more a fundamental mystery of the Gospel--the incarnation of the Word, contemplated at the decisive moment of the Annunciation of Mary. The Rosary is thus a Gospel prayer, as pastors and scholars like to define it, more today perhaps than in the past.

The mysteries that are contemplated as one prays the rosary are all based on gospel accounts.

2007-10-03 09:22:35 · answer #2 · answered by llazyiest 5 · 0 1

The entire Rosary IS Scripture! It is meditating on the mysteries of Jesus, which all come from the Bible. And yes, Mary is still a virgin, I know because #1, the Bible says so, and #2, through Faith.

2007-10-02 22:41:12 · answer #3 · answered by Tasha 6 · 3 1

No, Mary did not remain a virgin. She was married to Joseph and had other sons after Jesus. And no, it is not biblical to recite the rosary. The rosary beads sprang from a popular Pagan practice, as did many of the Catholic rituals. This is why the Catholic church is called a harlot in Revelation - she has mixed the unholy with the holy.

2007-10-02 22:32:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4 3

God say this : Exist! and it is existed.
no its not somebody or some God child. Jesus is merely a God creation and he is plain human. From the start of his miraculous existance, he is a proof of God power, God ability and yes from the start, he is God's messenger.

So yes, mary is virgin before and after the birth of Jesus. No she doesnt do anything sexually with God and Jesus is not a God and Mary is not a God mummy. And no holy ghost too, no invisible penis, no invisible sperm.

STOP FASCINATING the magical pregnant of mary. Jesus is not God, mary is not God's mother. Imaginary holy ghost doesnt insert his penis into mary, or doing sexual intercouse with mary. This has going on for centuries and you people has to stop this.

Exist! and it is existed. Is it so hard to accept that from the creator of earth, universe and all things between them?.

2007-10-03 22:19:01 · answer #5 · answered by xc 3 · 0 0

Yes.

With God, all things are possible.

Besides, Catholics had people there with Mary, who got the story right, and directly from her. They're known as the apostles and the disciples, and they taught much more of God's truth than we can read in scripture alone.

And no where in scripture does the bible claim to be the only, or even the primary authority for the Christian faith.

That authority is reserved to the only church that Jesus ever founded, authorized, empowered, and eternally guaranteed, for the purpose of our salvation ... the Catholic church.

2007-10-03 04:43:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Mat 19:26 But Jesus looked at them and said to them, "With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible."

From the early days of the Church, the Fathers taught that the Blessed Virgin remained a virgin. How could this be? See:

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/3007.htm

http://scripturecatholic.com/blessed_virgin_mary.html


My take:

Venerable Catherine Emmerich was a visionary. Her visions were quite extraordinary. You may recall that it was from the transcription of her visions of the Passion of Christ, that Mel Gibson made his movie.

She had a vision of the birth of Jesus. The Blessed Virgin was kneeling in prayer and elevated into the air a bit....the cave was bright with light....when she descended, baby Jesus was lying on the ground before her.......Now....do we know that this is absolutely true?...the answer is ‘no’.

If one can readily accept that the Blessed Virgin became pregnant without having ‘known man’, then why is it difficult to believe that the birth of Jesus could have been ‘miraculous’?

The Blessed Virgin was born without original sin. We know this for a number of reasons. Prior to the death of Jesus on the cross, all men were not in the state of grace. The Latin Vulgate, St.Gabriel tells her: ‘Ave Maria, gratia plena.’....i.e. Hail Mary, full of grace. Now, the only way that she could be full of grace was if she was born without the stain of original sin.

Further, she is the New Ark of the Covenant (see Rev. 11 & 12).

The Old Ark of the Covenant contained: the written word of God on the tablets of the covenant; the rod of Aaron, High Priest of Israel ……..(Exo 30:30); and the golden urn containing manna, the bread that descended from Heaven (Heb. 9:4).

The New Ark of the Covenant, which is the Blessed Virgin Mary, carried within her womb, the Incarnate Word of God (Joh 1:1-14) and the New and Everlasting Covenant (Heb. 13:20).

We are told in Holy Scripture that the Old Ark of the Covenant had to be pure (made of acacia wood) as it was to contain the written Word of God. How much purer must the New Ark of the Covenant have been to contain the Incarnate Word of God for nine months?!

Now, because of her sin, Eve was punished as follows:

Gen 3:16 To the woman he said, "I will greatly multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children, yet your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you."

If follows that the birth of humans through a pure vessel (in the Blessed Virgin) would have been different that the birth of humans through impuer vessels (women stained with original sin).

Lastly, St. Mary was a Temple Virgin as a child. She had pledged her life to God. St. Joseph was a Nazorite, also taking a vow of chastity. Both remained celibate.

These are the teachings of the Church prior to the Bible being written.....and continue through this day. (except the details provided by Ven. Emmerich discussed above.). You will recall that the Church existed almost 400 years prior to Pope St. Damasus I declaring which books were canonical and giving St. Jerome (a Catholic priest) the commission to translate the original texts and compile the Bible.

Someone else can demonstrate how the prayers of the rosary are from Scripture....I have run out of space.

2007-10-02 22:59:50 · answer #7 · answered by The Cub 4 · 3 1

Mary remained a virgin until after Jesus was born. She had other children with her husband, Joseph.

There is nothing Biblical about the rosary.

2007-10-02 22:33:39 · answer #8 · answered by TroothBTold 5 · 2 3

1. yes
2. God wanted it that way
1&2 mysteries of faith.
rosary, yes is biblical read
the four gospels and Revelation is all taken from there. all for the glory of God Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Joyfull Mysteries= Anouncement of the birth of Jesus, Visit of Mary to her cousing Elizabeth, Birth of Jesus, Presentation of Jesus in the temple and Jesus lost and found in the temple.

Mysteries of light= Baptism of Jesus, Transfiguration of Jesus, Weding in Canaa, Anouncement of the Kingdom of God, and The Eucharist( last supper).

Sorrowful Mysteries= Jesus in the garden, the scourging at the pilar,crowning with thorns,carrying of the cross,and crucificcion.

glorious mysteries= Resurrection, Ascension into heaven, descent of the Holy Spirit, Assuntion, and Crowning of Mary.
20 instanceses for mental meditation while reciting the Lords prayer, Hail Mary(taken from the bible) and the Gloria.

2007-10-02 23:19:55 · answer #9 · answered by SEG48 3 · 2 1

http://www.orthodoxinfo.com/inquirers/evervirgin.aspx

This is the Orthodox opinion.

The Church has always taught this: Council of Constantinople II (553 - 554) twice referred to Mary as "ever-virgin."

Even the Protestant Reformers agree:

German reformer Martin Luther's (1483-1546) writings often address the subject of Mary: On the Divine Motherhood of Mary, he wrote

In this work whereby she was made the Mother of God, so many and such great good things were given her that no one can grasp them. ... Not only was Mary the mother of him who is born [in Bethlehem], but of him who, before the world, was eternally born of the Father, from a Mother in time and at the same time man and God. (Weimer's The Works of Luther, English translation by Pelikan, Concordia, St. Louis, v. 7, p. 572.)

Luther, true to Catholic tradition, wrote on the Virginity of Mary:

It is an article of faith that Mary is Mother of the Lord and still a virgin. ... Christ, we believe, came forth from a womb left perfectly intact. (Weimer's The Works of Luther, English translation by Pelikan, Concordia, St. Louis, v.11, pp. 319-320; v. 6. p. 510.)

The French reformer John Calvin (1509-1564) also held that Mary was the Mother of God

It cannot be denied that God in choosing and destining Mary to be the Mother of his Son, granted her the highest honor. ... Elizabeth called Mary Mother of the Lord, because the unity of the person in the two natures of Christ was such that she could have said that the mortal man engendered in the womb of Mary was at the same time the eternal God. (Calvini Opera, Corpus Reformatorum, Braunschweig-Berlin, 1863-1900, v. 45, p. 348, 35.)

On the perpetual virginity of Mary, "Calvin routinely brushes aside the difficulties sometimes raised from "first born" and "brothers of the Lord."" (O'Carroll, M., 1983, Theotokos, M Glazier, Inc.: Wilmington, DE, p. 94.)

The Swiss reformer, Ulrich Zwingli (1484-1531), wrote, on the divine motherhood of Mary:

It was given to her what belongs to no creature, that in the flesh she should bring forth the Son of God. (Zwingli Opera, Corpus Reformatorum, Berlin, 1905, v. 6, I, p. 639.)

On the perpetual virginity of Mary, Zwingli wrote,

I firmly believe that Mary, according to the words of the gospel as a pure Virgin brought forth for us the Son of God and in childbirth and after childbirth forever remained a pure, intact Virgin. (Zwingli Opera, Corpus Reformatorum, Berlin, 1905, v. 1, p. 424.)

In another place Zwingli professed

I esteem immensely the Mother of God, the ever chaste, immaculate Virgin Mary ...; Christ ... was born of a most undefiled Virgin. (Stakemeier, E. in De Mariologia et Oecumenismo, Balic, K., ed., Rome, 1962, p. 456.)

The more the honor and love for Christ grows among men, the more esteem and honor for Mary grows, for she brought forth for us so great, but so compassionate a Lord and Redeemer. (Zwingli Opera, Corpus Reformatorum, Berlin, 1905, v. 1, pp. 427-428.)

2007-10-02 22:41:39 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

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