after they get diveorced or their husban dies?
Muslim women for example have to wait three menstrual cycles before they can remarry. Do Jewish women also have to wait?
2007-10-02
10:10:51
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8 answers
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asked by
Mimi
6
in
Travel
➔ Africa & Middle East
➔ Israel
Hi Tabatha,
my English is not very good so I don't exaclty know what is meant by get in this context but I googled it and I found this definition
"is a formal, clear-cut, legal process which requires only the consent of both parties. "
If this is what it means, i would say yes. For a divorce to be legal, there has to be a legal process in the court and both the wife and the husband get to sign a document. This also apply to widows. The widow gets a death certificate for their lost partner.
What I meant is Muslim women have to wait until their uterus gets clean of any remainings of their husbands and the later can only become perfectly clean after three cycles.
2007-10-02
11:18:29 ·
update #1
Yeah you are right hopeless. I wonder why you are hopeless? your answers are always great. You shouldn't be hopeless, you should be proud of yourself.
Thanks
2007-10-02
11:49:48 ·
update #2
HopelessZ00,
oh that's what you mean then, Yeah I lived in lebanon for 13 years beside a camp in (sour. Bourge Elshamali). My school was on the border of the camp and I had to walk to it everyday through that camp because that was the shortest way. I studeded in school from UNERWA. All my friends live in the camp and I spent most of my time with them in the camp. It was very small. The routes were very narrow and they are full of sewage water. The garbage is thrown beside the houses because they don't have enough containers. You go to the clinic and you get sick of the poor faces you see. They have all kinds of diseases. It is really bad. I was lucky that I didn't have to live in a camp.
Have you ever visited (El Rashidea camp in south lebabnon) It is a good one.
Please don't be hopeless. I never lose my hope.
Thank you
2007-10-02
12:22:33 ·
update #3
If the husband dies they are suppose to wait at least the length of the mourning periond - at least a month. As for a divource they have to wait until the gyet is handed down from the Jewish authority.
Good Luck!!!
I was under the belief that a "get" when transliterated into English was suppose to be written "gyet" (darn that orthodox sunday school teacher I had - lol) anyway I am glad to have been corrected by others as to the spelling here. Here is a link to the Wikipedia article on a Get - a Jewish divorce - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Get_%28divorce_document%29
Take care!!!
2007-10-02 10:32:43
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Mimi , I might stand to be corrected, but from my knowledge its not a matter of waiting to be clean. Its a matter of being sure that the woman is not pregnant. As in any society, when a couple are having problems , sometimes when the wife gets pregnant there is the possibility that feelings of love will come back, and therefore can reunite. Also if the woman did not wait for ex. and got married right away, and if she were pregnant from the first husband, how would they know whose baby it is? who is the father? Nothing to do with "being clean". Also if one practices Islam it is not as easy as waiting 3 months and then no problem. If a couple have a problem the first course of action would be to consult family members first for advice. Then after some time if problems continue, then they should consult an Imam for advice and if all this is exhausted , then they can divorce. Peace!
I'm assuming that a get(sorry for the spelling) is a divorce paper? (Could be wrong) , yes there is in islam as well.
2007-10-02 18:32:01
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answer #2
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answered by HopelessZ00 6
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Hi there Mimi.
In the Jewish religion, if the wife dies the widower is supposed to wait at least the length of the mourning period - at least a minimum of one month (30 or 31 days) . As for a divorce they have to wait until the get is handed down from the Rabbis to the ex spouse and when the ex spouse receives the get, then their marriage, according to Jewish laws and customs, is over.
I hope that this answered your doubts to some degree and should you need some additional assistance, please feel free to contact any Rabbi where you live or you can contact me by email.
Have a nice weekend.
2007-10-02 19:00:51
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answer #3
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answered by conde_c_b 7
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If the husband dies the widow is supposed to wait at least the length of the mourning periond - at least a month (30 or 31 days) . As for a divorce they have to wait until the get is handed down from the Rabbis to the ex spouse.
2007-10-02 18:49:05
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answer #4
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answered by soar_2307 7
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As someone else mentioned, women have to wait for 3 months due to the possibility of her being pregnant.
This has potential repercussions since, if she has a child, there may be a question as to who the father is (either her ex or her current husband). Waiting for three months removes all doubt as to who the father is.
2007-10-02 20:42:56
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answer #5
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answered by BMCR 7
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Not that I am aware of. As soon as the divorce is finalized (by receiving a divorce document called a 'get') the woman is free to marry as she pleases.
2007-10-02 19:17:50
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answer #6
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answered by Michael J 5
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No, not that I am not aware of. But I myself would not worry about it, because if anything happened to my husband, I wouldn't want to remarry that quick to a stranger. I love my husband and G-d forbid anything ever happened to him.
2007-10-02 17:32:07
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answer #7
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answered by Kane 4
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Hi Mimi,
Good question!
I'm just wondering if Muslim women have an equivalent of the 'get' that MikeInRi has mentioned?
Hope all well with you!
EDIT - sorry, I should have clarified 'get'! Thanks for the extra info!
2007-10-02 17:37:14
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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