"a whole city of butt pirates"
LMFAO!
2007-10-01 15:50:20
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answer #1
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answered by Cat Stevens 6
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Yes. Sodom and Gomorrah were cities where a great deal of sexual perversion occurred. The illustration used in the Bible to draw a picture of the perversion was in the account of when the men of Sodom attempted to gain access to Lot's home so as to have sex with the angels who came to visit and warn him of the coming judgment.
When used in the descriptive way, such as saying "that person is a Sodomite", it specifically refers to someone who chooses to engage in homosexuality. Sodomy is derived from the city name and is used to refer to anal intercourse, the type most practiced by men who choose the homosexual lifestyle.
One of the canards that are put forth by those who favor homosexuals is that the sin of Sodom was inhospitality. While there is a Scripture that refers to that, logically, one should look into what that inhospitality consisted of. In this case, it can be directly traced back to the attempted homosexual assault against the angels by the men of Sodom. The Bible is specific that it was the men of the city who came after the angels of the Lord.
2007-10-01 16:03:40
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answer #2
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answered by †Lawrence R† 6
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It actually happened before that. Genesis 9:21 says
And Noah drank wine and became drunk and was uncovered and lay naked in his tent. 22 and Ham, the father of Canaan, glanced at and saw the nakedness of his father and told his two brothers outside. 23 So Shem and Japeth took a garment laid it upon their shoulders and went backwards and covered Abraham up and did not see their father's nakedness. 24 When Noah awoke from his wine he knew the thing which his son had done to him. 25 He exclaimed, Cursed be Canaan!!! He shall be a servent of servants to his brothers.
Ham, the father of Canaan, did not just see his father naked. The use of this word naked throughout scripture when it refers to sexual sin, is meant to mean sexual, of some sort, not just to see someone naked. So something was done to Noah, that was bad enough to cause Canaan to be cursed. And the generations that followed.
The Canaanites were known for their sexual perversion and settled in Sodom. They were the decendents of Canaan.
2007-10-01 16:58:05
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I was thinking about that. Sodom and Sodomy , and it probably did originate from that town or maybe they nicknamed in that after the fact, it was a horribly sinful city...
And maybe Gonorrhea is connected to Gomorrah, who knows?
2007-10-01 15:52:57
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answer #4
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answered by 0110010100 5
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it rather is physically powerful! the biggest distinction is: Conservatives have faith in God, smaller government, and private duty. Liberals go through a psychological illness and have faith (examine as dream) that the State (i.e. government) would desire to play the function of God as a manner to create a Heaven in the international (the place there is no desire for inner maximum duty b/c the government will make all alternatives for all persons). i'm extraordinarily particular that's what the tale above gets at.
2016-12-14 05:18:14
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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Quite right you there! "Sodomy" was rampant in Sodom that is why that sexual act's term was derived from the name of that city. And those who practices that sexual acts to this day - I call them - - "remnants of Sodom who managed to escape the wrath of God by climbing the rear fence of Sodom"...YUcKKK! LOL!!!!
2007-10-01 16:21:14
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answer #6
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answered by GH 2
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No, just the city of Sodom
'City's' plural meaning two
Gomorrah was a separate city, they were both evil much like today's city's are becoming, God destroyed both city's because of the wickedness of the people with in them.
2007-10-01 15:55:32
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answer #7
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answered by Thoughtfull 4
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You are correct - less the "whole city of butt pirates" part, there was alot of it going on but not the "whole city."
It was known for it - kinda like Hollywood or SF.
2007-10-01 15:51:42
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes, it's true. Read Genesis 19.
(Was your last sentence really necessary?)
2007-10-01 15:54:50
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answer #9
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answered by N L 6
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Since many "Christians" do not actually read the bible you have to be careful taking their word for it.
The term did originate from "the sin of Sodom", but the meaning of that sin has changed over the centuries.
In the bible it actually identifies inhospitability or prejudice towards strangers as the Sins of Sodom NOT sex.
The focus on sex (specifically male on male sex) became the interpretation during a fairly recent conservative period of Christianity when they blamed everything on sex.
"Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fullness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters,
neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took
them away as I saw this." (16:49-50, KJV).
PS: Sodomy means ANY kind of sexual activity that is not straight "missionary" sex for the purpose of having children. Even in a heterosexual, married couple oral sex or even just having sex in a different position for fun is sodomy.
PPS: The WHOLE town approached Lot's house and wanted to "know" the strangers (angels). If it was men who wanted to have sex with them, why did they bring their wives and children to complain at Lot's door? They were frightened of strangers and wanted to kick them out or kill them NOT have sex with them.
2007-10-01 16:04:02
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes and it means exactly what you think it means. That's why God destroyed those cities. And He will destroy the earth AGAIN because of man's sin.
God bless!
2007-10-01 15:56:17
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answer #11
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answered by Devoted1 7
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