"God [is] NOT a man, that he should lie; neither the SON OF MAN, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do [it]? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good? (Numbers 23:19)"
Jesus called himself the "Son of Man" repeatedly, and was also "100% human and 100% God" so does this conflict with your teachings or am i mistaken?
2007-10-01 14:25:37 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
it depends on the context and the point ...
2007-10-01 14:29:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Very Good Question!
Off the Top of me Head all I can say without Studying these Scriptures was:
1. GOD Said it in the Old Testament BEFOR GOD Became a Man (Jesus) and Died on the Cross for the World (US) in the New Testament.
2. That's all!
2007-10-01 21:33:37 · answer #2 · answered by maguyver727 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus entered on the earth as a man to die for our sins. He had already existed.
2007-10-01 21:32:40 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, they were referring to God the father obviously
2007-10-01 21:29:26 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Figure of speech I would guess.
For example, your avatar says "best prez", but obviously he is the worst president ever. So it's just a figure of speech.
2007-10-01 21:32:04 · answer #5 · answered by James Bond 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
no conflict, you're mistaken
2007-10-01 21:29:29 · answer #6 · answered by going postal 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
the latter.... youre mistaken.
2007-10-01 21:31:19 · answer #7 · answered by heather b 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋