OK, I just want your opinion. If any of you dare to ruin some attempt for peaceful debate, I will dropkick all of you.
Anyway... Christian, Muslim, Jewish... Any religious scholar in the medieval times applied Aristotle's logic to explain their religious beliefs. They used logic to explain the statements in the Bible, Torah, Quran, etc.
And then there are the priests. The priests that used... Well, not exactly blind faith, but just the word of the manuscripts to explain events and word.
Now, which one would you more likely believe? And neither is not a choice.
2007-10-01
12:27:48
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4 answers
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asked by
The World Ends with You
5
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yeah, I agree, most of the scholars were priests, but they USED logic to explain the statements of the Bible. When I say priests(if you read it carefully), I stated that I was talking about the priests who said ,"You should worship God just because the Bible says so or he'll smite you and send you to Hell."
2007-10-01
12:35:31 ·
update #1
Oh, very nice changes to your answers. Thanks for extending upon that. Yes, I know that they don't do that. But I'm saying theoretically, you're confronted with a scholar who explains to you with rational thought, then a priest who just demands you believe through "blind faith". I can't find a better term, sorry. But yeah, I'm satisfied that we had some rational debate here.
2007-10-01
13:37:42 ·
update #2