Mary's own being without sin is in no way scriptural. This was a "revelation" by a Pope only about 150 years ago. I can't believe the Catholic church still teaches this, but they are kind of stuck with it.
You are right about your reference.
2007-10-01 10:18:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The idea of Mary needing to have been conceived sinlessly is far too obscure for casual Christians to grasp. So they assume it must have to do with the "conception" of Jesus. Except that Jesus was not "conceived". The ancients had no idea that there was a female contribution to the process other than the womb. So as far as they were concerned, God spontaneously "incarnated" in this womb. Mary was merely a vessel. But obviously she'd have to be a "pure" vessel, hence the doctrine. But the need for such a doctrine is not obvious enough to interest most people, in part because we have a different understanding of reproduction and in part because the doctrine doesn't explain HOW Mary's conception was different from everyone else's. And yes, it does bring up the question of Mary's need for salvation.
2007-10-01 17:23:05
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answer #2
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answered by skepsis 7
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thats exactly correct, Mary needed a savior, and he did save her, he saved her from the moment of her conception, from the stain of original sin that other men are born with, why did God do this to Mary and not to all? Because she was to be the mother of Jesus Christ, who is all holy, Mary couldnt not have any stain of sin and bear Jesus in her womb. Think about it, if your God, and holy, would you create your mom with or without sin? God saved her, He can do that because He is God.
2007-10-01 17:19:46
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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you answered your own question, so really this was pointless.
Second, you look like a fool putting in your own opinions(btw i'm right, right, right, and you're wrong, wrong, wrong)
Jesus was still her savior, she was just made special because she had to carry Him.
take a look at this:
http://www.olrl.org/apologetics/statueworship.shtml#ans8
also, i should probably point out the non-biblical gospel the protoevangelum, which tells about Mary's parents praying for a child a receiving one. It wasn't included in the bible because they felt a gospel should start with Jesus, not Mary.
lost.eu/21618
2007-10-01 17:20:46
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answer #4
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answered by Quailman 6
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I have to give you credit for knowing what the Immaculate Conception is.
Yes, Mary realized that Jesus was her savior.
Mary was saved at the moment of her conception as a special grace from God. The rest of us are saved by God's grace at our Baptism and whenever we call upon God to save us from sin.
Think of it as being saved from a hole in the ground. Mary was saved by God before she fell into the hole. The rest of us are saved after we fall into the hole
2007-10-01 17:24:28
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answer #5
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answered by Sldgman 7
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since your little brain cannot grasp the extent of God's miracle, I will try to enlighten you. Mary must be born without sin so that the flesh that Jesus will have will be unblemished. I really pray that you understand that. It would take a miracle to have you grasp that kind of Grace.
2007-10-01 17:22:54
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answer #6
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answered by Ťango 3
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No. Mary was conceived without sin by way of God. Mary just wasn't any old woman. She was chosen by God way before she was born!
2007-10-01 17:20:43
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answer #7
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answered by Hill Topper 5
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I wounder many things The biggest is Yes she was a virgin, BUT, after Jesus was Born she had other children. So the worship of Mary is very confusing
2007-10-01 17:18:27
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answer #8
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answered by Rev.Michelle 6
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I always heard it was because mary was a virgin (Therefore you hear of The Virgin Mary) when she became pregnant...
2007-10-01 17:19:43
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answer #9
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answered by Miss Useless Knowledge 7
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Im gonna bust out some popcorn and just sit back and watch the Royal Rumble that shall ensue....
You people are so funny, arguing amongst yourselves, calling your own breatheren LIARS and WRONG.
2007-10-01 17:19:21
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answer #10
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answered by ? 5
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