does the Old Testament predict events in the New Testament with such startling accuracy? For example, the Old Testament predicts the Immaculate Conception and several of the events surrounding Jesus' death. How could the Old Testament have predicted these events in such detail if it hadn't been divinely inspired?
2007-10-01 08:06:37 · 28 answers · asked by Pull My Finger 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
All you geniuses who say that the OT doesn't predict the Immaculate Conception can look at Isaiah 7:14 and shut your pie holes. To the lady who said the Immaculate Conception is a Catholic doctrine that says Mary is born of a virgin -- you are wrong. Immaculate Conception means the same thing as virgin birth. The Catholics don't say Mary was born of a virgin, I know this as a former Catholic.
2007-10-01 08:38:35 · update #1
Wait -- I was wrong about the definition of "Immaculate Conception." But that lady who provided the link didn't read it very carefully, either. Okay, so it's not a reference to Jesus' conception, but the belief that Mary was free from original sin from her conception. The fault is entirely mine for any confusion caused by my misuse of the term "immaculate conception." I meant Jesus' miraculous conception. Sorry for telling you to shut your pie hole. And apparently you are geniuses compared to me. My bad.
2007-10-01 18:09:27 · update #2
The same way that "prophecies" in Fellowship of the Ring were wrapped up in Return of the King.
2007-10-01 08:10:37 · answer #1 · answered by Snark 7 · 8⤊ 1⤋
1) No, it didn't predict the Immaculate Conception. The Immaculate Conception is the Catholic doctrine that MARY was born of a virgin.
2) The verse in Isaiah that begins "Behold, a virgin shall conceive ..." is not about the Messiah, it's a prediction on the outcome of a war that was taking place at the time.
3) The word "alma" in the original text didn't mean "virgin" anyway.
4) The Messiah was supposed to rebuild the Temple (in Jerusalem) in three days. The Christians retrofitted this prophecy to mean his body.
5) The Messiah was supposed to have come from the lineage of David. The alleged virgin birth makes that a moot point, since it does not say Mary was descended from David, it says Joseph was.
etc. etc.
2007-10-01 08:19:23 · answer #2 · answered by Robin W 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you completely serious? Let' see....how could I write a newspaper that would absolutely reflect what was predicted in an old newspaper? Hmmm....I guess I would simply report that they happened. Then it would look like it came true, whether it did or not. I'm sure I could find some stuff that would look similar to what was predicted as well...make it fit with a little poetic license, and there you have it...presto! Prophecy fulfilled.
How hard is it to say a birth was immaculate, when you already have the script written for you? I wonder if there was DNA testing then if there would have been the same claims?
Do you place the same holy credence on the predictions of Nostradamus? How about Edgar Casey?
2007-10-01 08:22:05 · answer #3 · answered by Night Owl 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Guess waht bone head, THEY MADE IT UP. PROVE TO ME that there was an Immaculate Conception. It is just some fantasy that you believe. And guess what. The story of Isis and Horus was the process of Immaculate Conception and It pre-dates the bible. Quite probably pre-dates the old testament prediction. Where do you think 95% of the bible, old and new, comes from. It can all be linked to stories and cultures that pre-date any written bible. The Sumerian Tablets are a good example. Helf the stories in the bible are in the Sumerian Tablets, in longer form, and pre-dating anyting written in the bible. Get a clue.
2007-10-01 08:35:26 · answer #4 · answered by bocasbeachbum 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
You are assuming that atheists believe Jesus was an immaculate conception. But I digress.
When you write a book of metaphors, written by people who spoke in metaphors, it is easy to take some of the words and make them into "predictions" after the fact.
Led Zeppelin sang a song about Katrina in 1971, called "When The Levee Breaks". You could argue that it was a prediction based on the lyrics.
2007-10-01 08:13:51 · answer #5 · answered by Take it from Toby 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Because the New Testament in many instances was written to fit the prophecy. Or do you believe all that stuff happened even though there is no actual verification for all of it outside the Bible itself, although we do have the writings from secular historians that fail to mention it? There are many questionable writings in the Bible in light of what non Biblical sources reveal about the period.
2007-10-01 08:14:43 · answer #6 · answered by Zen Pirate 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Old Testament doesn't predict the immaculate conception. For one thing, most Protestant sects don't even believe in the immaculate conception. They don't even think it's in the New Testament.
2007-10-01 08:10:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
You can read anything you care to into the old and new testaments . Ten people can read the same passage and come out with ten different interpretations .
Why do you suppose there are so many bible studies ? Anything written clearly just has to be read , not studied endlessly for thousands of years , and still come to no clear conclusions .
2007-10-01 08:17:05 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is circular reasoning. The Bible predicts events that are purported to have occurred in the Bible, therefore the Bible predicts events with "startling accuracy."
2007-10-01 08:12:11 · answer #9 · answered by nightserf 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
The simple answer is that it did not and does not. Every generation of Bible believers has interpreted the predictions of the Bible according to their understanding of the events of their time, and all have been convinced that the endtimes were during their own time. So far it has not been so and it is not so now.
2007-10-01 08:14:21 · answer #10 · answered by geniepiper 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That's cute.
In case some people don't understand the problem here, people wrote the events of the NT to match the prophecies of the OT. Savvy?
2007-10-01 08:10:58 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋