Don't you think God's use of grammar would have evolved with the times, or does He prefer that we speak to him like a medieval monk?
2007-10-01 03:37:46 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
CJ, do you need to look up the differences between "amused by" and "bothered" in a dictionary?
2007-10-01 03:42:05 · update #1
Based on the vitriole being expressed in some of the responses, the following is clear:
1. People apparently think that "humor" and "Christianity" are mutually exclusive.
2. Because of this, people are assuming that my embrace of humor must mean I hate God or something.
Wow... Very telling!
2007-10-01 04:03:00 · update #2
To those that think it shows respect, I'm REALLY fascinated by this. Seriously! I'm just wondering WHY you feel that way? It is based on a language and form of speaking that was popular 500 years after Christ died. So how does that show respect? If all it takes to show respect is using a defunct way of speaking, why not just use Aramaic or Latin, or some other language that actually EXISTED when Christ was around?
2007-10-01 04:10:38 · update #3
If the people in question live in parts of Yorkshire or Pennsylvania, then all good. Otherwise, it just sounds silly.
My point being, the dialect spoken in parts of Yorkshire, England, is very similar to 17th century English - watch an old episode of "Last Of The Summer Wine" and listen to the way Compo talks to get an idea of what I mean.
And in Pennsylvania, I understand there are one or two religious sects who speak that way. I might be wrong about that.
But yeah, if it's the way you talk normally, then fine. But if you speak in modern English normally, but switch to 17th century English for praying, then you just sound like a muppet.
2007-10-01 03:40:26 · answer #1 · answered by Scumspawn 6 · 1⤊ 4⤋
You know, there is such a thing as "formal English." It's really too bad that we don't teach people how to speak properly anymore. I find nothing amusing about people not being able to speak their own mother tongue any more than I find it amusing when someone tries to belittle my beliefs.
Yes, I do use use formal English when I pray. It is one small way that I can show my reverence to God. I am sure he speaks colloquial English just as well as any of us, but I prefer to be more formal.
2007-10-01 03:48:06 · answer #2 · answered by King James 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Those are words to reflect great respect and honor. Other languages besides English do the same thing. In Korea, there are specific levels of how you can express the same word. The "higher" levels reflect deep respect.
By using thine, thou and thine, you are merely expressing respect.
2007-10-01 05:05:01 · answer #3 · answered by Kerry 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No it is not amusing.....It is in fact that individuals way of communicating with GOD. Every1 has their own, personal relationship! However they decide to commune with Jesus is personal.
However u feed your spirit...will be the outcome! If I study from the King James Version Bible, that will be how I speak. If it is from the NIV.... it will be current grammar!
But reguardless, this is not something to judge; every1 is different, every1 is special- u have worshippers, u have praisers-u have singers, u have dancers- u have old school, u hve new school! And God loves us all....as long as we dedicate our time, talent and treasure to HIM and HIM alone....HE is pleased!
2007-10-01 03:55:05 · answer #4 · answered by created2worship12 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It is strange to me because they think that archaic English is "holy talk," is if Jesus or other Bible characters spoke in archaic English at all.
People who use out-of-date English while addressing God have been influenced by their clergymen who they hear saying church prayers with all the "thees and thous." Also, a number of Bibles, including the Revised Standard Version, quote Jesus using archaic English while saying the Lord's Prayer at John chapter 17. But in other places, Jesus is speaking in modern English.
News flash: Jesus NEVER spoke English of ANY kind.
2007-10-01 03:47:51 · answer #5 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
i do no longer likely strategies. basically some activities. Like once I text cloth a number of sentences to a pal and all i'm getting decrease back is "LOL" It annoys the **** out of me. i do no longer respond decrease back after that.
2016-11-06 22:44:24 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it does not amuse me. I view it as a term of respect.
Also, back in the day when the terms Thee, Thou, and Thine were used regularly, they meant and were used in the same way we use you, your, and yours today. Back then, the terms you, your, and yours were considered very proper and only used toward those who were of a higher class than you. The use of the terms Thee, Thou and Thine in reference to God was used because the people felt that He was one of them in that he was carpenter, was born in lowly circumstances, etc. And so while they knew He was deity, they also saw him as approachable, and friendly, like a neighbor and close friend. So they used the terms they would use around a close friend, but also (when writing them) capitalized them to show respect to their God.
The fact that you find the terms amusing, and that you think God cares about the grammar I use in prayer proves that you don't have a relationship with God - and for that I'm sorry because I count Him as my best friend and I'd love it if He were yours too.
2007-10-01 03:48:49 · answer #7 · answered by Tonya in TX - Duck 6 · 8⤊ 2⤋
Why dost thou thinkest that bonny King James knoweth not how to speaketh English ?
2007-10-01 03:43:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
some people feel that the use of old english ties in with the old king james version of the bible, thus thee feeling closer to thine own god....
2007-10-01 03:41:30 · answer #9 · answered by Chickenfarmer 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Actually, if a person is using it in the inflected way, signifying singular over plural as part of their monotheism, I have no problem with it.
English would be clearer if still inflected. You have no doubt of number in the Romance languages.
2007-10-01 03:41:25 · answer #10 · answered by LabGrrl 7 · 4⤊ 2⤋