2007-10-01 01:30:47 · 11 answers · asked by redbone001 1 in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
No its not its just that you was the first to report to be written
2007-10-01 01:41:33 · answer #1 · answered by nas88car300 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The answer to this question is generally - yes. However, there can be times when vehicle #1 is not the vehicle at fault. I, as a Highway Patrol Officer, use vehicle #1 as the vehicle that does the colliding with another vehicle, but that doesn't always mean that they're at fault.
Example: On a 2-laned ramp heading towards the George Washington Bridge, a tractor-trailer was in the left lane and a livery cab was in the right. The livery cab was in the truck driver's blind spot and when traffic started inching forward, the livery driver decided to change lanes. The truck driver never saw him and as the truck moved forward it struck the livery cab direclty in the middle of the car. Even though the tractor-trailer initiated the collision (vehicle#1) on the report, I found the livery driver at fault and wrote it as such in the report.
Every police officer, at least in NYC, has a duty/responsibility to determine fault at accident scenes.
2007-10-01 02:59:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Nope, it just means of all the cars involved, you happened to get the number 1 designation. It also doesn't mean you are NOT at fault, or anything else other than he assigned you that number.
Read the narrative, it will give the information as to what car number 1 and car numbers 2, et al, were doing and where they wound up and what if any damage was done.
A more reliable indicator of what the officer thinks regarding fault would be if he hands you a ticket, and says "Sign here please." and it's for something like "failure to yield" or the like.
2007-10-01 02:25:06 · answer #3 · answered by oklatom 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No car one could be stopped at a light and is hit by car 2. Fault is a funny thing too. You could stop and be hit from behind. The other person gets a ticket for being "at fault" but the insurance company may claim you were "partially" at fault as you could have swerved around the stove in the street rather than stopping!
2007-10-01 01:36:22 · answer #4 · answered by komondor4 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Read your entire report. Most states/cities if not all, do not allow the police to make a judgment on who was too blame. Usually car 1 is the vehicle that had the right of way. Or at least the traffic right of way. Call your insurance company and speak to the agent they might be able to explain it better.
2007-10-01 01:51:05 · answer #5 · answered by LucySD 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. A lot of times #2 is the one at fault. But it does not matter. The car number is just that to describe your car. Most of the time number 1 is the first person to give the officer his/her information. In the story the officer would write what happens and if possible will determine who is at fault. If he can't he writes details to let the insurance company figure out from the damage who hit who first etc....Just read the story. Not sure what state you are in but in NY the boxes on the outside have codes for who is at fault.
2007-10-01 01:40:08 · answer #6 · answered by cessna007 1 · 1⤊ 2⤋
No.
It just means the police officer wrote down your information first.
Read the narrative on the report. When it refers to unit 1 - that's you.
2007-10-01 01:35:42 · answer #7 · answered by Boots 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No: it just means you are the first car described
2007-10-01 01:35:47 · answer #8 · answered by flea 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no it doesnt mean your at fault
2007-10-01 02:03:51 · answer #9 · answered by tooladdict76 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
2007-10-01 01:33:15 · answer #10 · answered by Aunt Doobie 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋