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I read that Jesus descended into hell before ascending to Heaven.
It was in a bulletin I was given.

2007-09-30 19:47:52 · 9 answers · asked by utopia264 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

It doesn't. That comes from the Apostle's Creed, and today it is often left off. What it used to mean was "the place of the dead" but when we hear Hell, we are usually thinking of the final place of punishment. So don't confuse the two. Christ died, was buried, and rose from the dead. He didn't serve time in fiery Hell, if that's what you were thinking.

2007-09-30 19:51:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

According to this source, no.

So, how did the idea of Jesus descending into Hell get incorporated into the church creeds? The early church taught that Jesus descended into Hades. The Old Roman form of the Apostles' Creed (about A.D. 140) did not have the phrase, "He descended into Hell", and it did not appear in the Nicene Creed (A.D. 325). It seems to have been a late addition (perhaps around A.D. 390). The phrase first appeared in the Creed of Aquileia, (4th century, in the Latin words descendit in inferna - descended into Hades). In addition, the Athanasian Creed, which does contain the phrase, may not have been written until the time of Charlemagne (8th century). So, why the addition? One possible explanation is that at the end of the fourth century (around A.D. 381) the church was battling the teachings of Apollinaris. He taught that Jesus was not fully human - He had a human body and soul, but a divine spirit. The church, on the other hand, taught that Jesus had to be fully human for His death to be a true death and an effective sacrifice for sin. To demonstrate that Jesus was fully human, with a human spirit, the church may have added the Latin phrase from the Creed of Aquileia to the more popular Apostles' Creed. By the time of the Middle Ages, the words Hell and Hades had become confused and Jesus was thought to have descended into Hell.

2007-10-01 02:57:18 · answer #2 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 1 0

Rubbish. Hell hasn't even been created yet because the Bible teaches that the earth will be turned to hell some time after Jesus second coming. Its not Biblical and the Bible teaches the opposite to what this bulletin suggests.

The reference in 1 Peter is suggesting that those who were around before Jesus, still had the same oportunities in life and therefore will be judged equally.

2007-10-01 02:53:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

From what information I have available, Jesus was in Hades(hell)for approximately 40 hours.
From 3PM Friday, Nisan 14, to sunrise Sunday, Nisan 16.
Acts 2:22-32 speaks about Jesus' body not being forsaken in Hades(hell), nor would his flesh see decay.
Also check Ephesians 4:9-10

2007-10-01 04:12:49 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

1 Peter {3:18} For Christ also hath once suffered for sins,
the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being
put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: {3:19}
By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in
prison; {3:20} Which sometime were disobedient, when
once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah,
while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight
souls were saved by water.

2007-10-01 03:43:11 · answer #5 · answered by cmebDUCKs 3 · 0 0

It is not biblical in origin. It was avery early medieval concept that Jesus descended into Hell. John Calvin seems to have approved of it, at least he did in 1559.

2007-10-01 02:59:38 · answer #6 · answered by jcboyle 5 · 0 1

What bulletin did you read this on? Maybe someone was spouting an opinion of their interpretation of something.

2007-10-01 02:54:17 · answer #7 · answered by gumby 7 · 0 0

There's a reference to it in 1 Peter: "For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit." (1Pe 4:6) There's another in chapter 3.

2007-10-01 02:54:00 · answer #8 · answered by w2 6 · 0 0

Make them give you proof. It's not there. That's ridiculous.

2007-10-01 02:51:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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