2007-09-29
13:14:29
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23 answers
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asked by
NHBaritone
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Earl D: I know of no secular ethical code that says that forced sex on a woman is acceptable.
However, I can name several, including many Christian sects (e.g., recent news about Warren Jeffs and the FLDS Church), that think it is not only ethical, but absolutely incumbent on a woman to submit to the man.
2007-09-29
13:51:13 ·
update #1
Oops. '.... several RELIGIONS ....'
2007-09-29
13:52:06 ·
update #2
Under no circumstances.
2007-09-29 13:17:33
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I guess, at some level, it depends on what's considered ethical, right? Many common (between religions) ethical principles do end up becoming laws even in countries which separation of religion and state.
Most religious "ethics" aren't ethical at all. And the law and ethics do not always coincide because different ethical principles sometimes clash and it cannot be left to the judgment of ordinary human beings to sort these clashes out.
So my answer would be that if a particular religious ethical principle can stand without the religion, it should be perfectly all right to use the law to impose it on non-members.
2007-09-29 20:31:24
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answer #2
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answered by StormBringer 3
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There are no circumstances when this is acceptable.
What is ethical to one religion can be unethical to another. Which religion should be ignored and which granted this imposition?
In one religion it may be healthy and beneficial to all for everyone to openly and freely (and safely) to express their sexuality with whomever and with as many as they wish. In another this behavior would be seen as an abomination.
(and no you cannot make the argument that the earlier is dangerous, as SAFELY done, it is almost as safe as a monogamous sexuality)
So which religion should impose its will on followers and non-followers alike?
Only when such ethics are based on the society and its needs should any ethical imposition be made. NOT based on religious dogma of a few (or even most) of its citizens.
2007-09-29 20:29:17
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answer #3
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answered by jennette h 4
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There are NO circumstances where ANY religion should be allowed to use the law to impose it's ethical rules on non-members. Truth to tell, no one should be expected to follow any moral or ethical rules that are NOT part of their religious beliefs. Ever.
2007-09-30 01:12:24
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answer #4
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answered by kveldulf_gondlir 6
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The rule of the fascist "majority". I would replace the term religion with belief system though since religion is not a pre-requisite.
That is why I believe that all of the non-homogeneous mass of the world that knows that that sort of imposition is wrong need to get along well enough to stomp it out (or at least actively discourage it).
Separation of Church and State protects us ALL from having a belief system imposed on us that we do not agree with.
2007-09-29 21:32:51
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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None. It is the height of tyranny for any religion to use the law to impose its ethical rules on a nation's citizens. This sort of behavior starts civil wars and destroys countries.
2007-09-29 20:23:24
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answer #6
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answered by Diogenes 7
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It's never right....and under no circumstances should it ever become allowable. However, the government of the US tends to see things a bit differently from the majority.
Apparently our President and the 1st Amendment are passing acquaintances who never really got to know each other on a first name basis. Same goes for his daddy.
2007-09-29 20:19:30
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answer #7
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answered by Adam G 6
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None. History is replete of nothing but bad examples of what happens when governments do this. The Roman Inquisition and the Crusades come to mind. Political colonialism under the guise of religious neccessity always sucks for the little guy who merely wants to live in peace-- no matter what he does or doesn't believe. The Dark Ages bear me out on this one, I believe.
2007-09-29 20:19:35
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answer #8
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answered by Wired 5
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Let us put it in simple understanding.
Certain CLUB would not allowwed NON MEMBER to enter thier premises as all facilities provided exclusively ONLY to their's members.
At this circumtance THE CLUB had a RIGHT to IMPOSE their's regulation towards NON MEMBER who purposely enter the CLUB PREMISES or make use the FACILITIES without PERMISSION or invitation.
Another example; The Islamic Law ordered NO NONE MUSLIM are allowed to enter or remain in Mecca and should The NON MUSLIM purposely enter the City of Mecca then Islamic law allowed Muslim people to drove them out or even allowed to beheaded them therefore in this circumtance the Islamic Law had a RIGHT to be IMPOSE on NON-MEMBERS.
Another example: Under Common Law, all mens have a right to protect themself and their properties. Therefore all of us had a right to use a MINIMUM FORCE in our own premises to the extent of killing other life who could dengerous or harm our life or the life or our family member or our property.
2007-09-29 20:53:43
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answer #9
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answered by mad 2
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Rape
Or do you disagree with the one.
Do you feel someone has the MORAL right to hold a woman down and forcebly penetrate her!
How about a 5 year old girl
How about a 10 year old girl
At what age can a MAN force sex upon a girl
Speak up, we are all WAITING for you to say WHAT AGE is a GOOD AGE to enforce FORCED SEX on a girl
2007-09-29 20:40:59
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Whenever there is a right to vote on an issue this can happen. Nonreligious people have that right also. You vote according to what you believe is best. Sometimes religious belief will be a factor in making that decision and sometimes it won't.
2007-09-29 20:28:41
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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