I've recently been watching season 1 of "the untouchables". There were all these clubs and pubs serving liquor. As I understand it, the manufacturing, distributing, and SALE of liquor was illegal. So why didn't they arrest the club and pub owners?
2007-09-29 08:45:14 · 3 answers · asked by A-Team 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
The cops often did raid those clubs. However often the mob owned those clubs and they either paid off the local authorities or intimidated them into not enforcing the law. Also a lot of people didn't see a problem with the clubs operating. So many people felt that way that prohibition was eventually repealed.
2007-09-29 08:51:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They did arrest club owners and closed down the bars, called speakeasies. The charge was not paying taxes and selling untaxed alcohol. The F.B. I. at the time was attached to the Treasury Department.
2007-09-29 08:50:49 · answer #2 · answered by fangtaiyang 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that amendment to the constitution was probably as unpopular with law officials as it was to the general public. i assume (it's only a guess), that they used that law to go after big time racketeers, i.e., capone. it's like bookies in my hometown, in the 60's. every bartender and barber could get you a bet down on on the next sporting event...it was against the law, but hardly ever enforced.
2007-09-29 09:07:45 · answer #3 · answered by Manofthewest 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋